Assistant Insurance Medical Officer, Assistant Surgeon/ Casualty Medical Officer Question Paper and Answer Key

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Code: 048/2024
Medium of Question- English
Name of Post: Assistant Insurance Medical Officer, Assistant Surgeon/ Casualty Medical Officer
Department; Insurance Medical Services, Health Services
Cat. Number: 453/2023, 494/2023, 536/2023
Date of Test : 29.04.2024


1. Which among the following regarding Angioedema is true ?
 A) It originates from superficial dermis
 B) Acute angioedema lasts < 4 weeks
 C) Auto antibodies are present to Ig E in around 45% patients
d) In cold urticaria, cryoglobulins are present in almost 50% of patients

2. Which among the following is false regarding Odollam Poisoning ?
 A) They belong to the group cardiac glycosides
 B) They inhibit cardiac Na-K-ATPase membrane pump
 C) In acute poisoning, there is hypokalemia
d) Cardiac pacing can be done in case of arrhythmias

3. Which among the following is true regarding snake bites ?
 A) Cobras belong to the family colubridae
 B) About 25% of pit viper bites are dry bites
 C) Rhabdomyolysis is usually seen in viper bites
d) Prophylactic broad spectrum antibiotics are preferred as part of treatment protocol

4. Which among the following is false regarding heart failure ?
 A) The 5 year survival following a diagnosis of heart failure is 25%
 B) Beri Beri is one of the causes of high output heart failure
 C) Abnormal excitation-contraction coupling and cross bridge interaction is an important mechanism of Ventricular remodeling
d) Endothelin is a natural vasoconstrictor that plays an important role in the pathogenesis of heart failure

5. Which of the following primary genetic disorders is not associated with Inflammatory Bowel disease (IBd) ?
 A) Turner’s syndrome
 B) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
 C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d) Noonan syndrome

6. Which of the following is not a risk factor for Reactivation of pulmonary Tuberculosis ?
 A) HIV infection and diabetes
 B) Asbestosis and Interstitial lung disease
 C) Silicosis and IV drug Abuse
d) Chronic Renal Failure and Alcohol abuse

7. Which among the following are major manifestations of severe Falciparum malaria ?
 A) Cerebral malaria
 B) metabolic Alkalosis
 C) Severe microcyctic hypochromic anaemia
d) Hyperglycemic coma

8. Which is not true regarding Hemophilia ?
 A) Inheritance is x linked recessive
 B) One unit of recombinant factor VIII (8) increases plasma factor 8 levels by 5%
 C) desmopressin can cause a transient increase in factor 8 levels when used intranasally
d) The prevalence of inhibitors to factor 8 is estimated to be around 30% in Hemophilia A

9. Which of the following organisms are not associated with post operative prosthetic valve endocarditis ?
 A) Enterococci
 B) Staph. aureus
 C) Coagulase negative staph.
d) HACEK organisms

10. Which among the following is not a test suggested for work up for anaemia ?
 A) Reticulocyte count
 B) Bone marrow study
 C) Urine porphyrins
d) Total iron binding capacity

11. Which among the following drug is used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s dementia ?
 A) Flumazenil
 B) dabigatran
 C) lamotrigine
d) donepezil

12. Which of the following is not seen in advanced heart failure ?
 A) Hyponatremia
 B) Hypernatremia
 C) Hyperkalemia
d) Hypokalemia

13. In the Get up and go test to assess gait and balance, normal performance takes less than
 A) 12 seconds
 B) 15 seconds
 C) 18 seconds
d) 21 seconds

14. Which of the following is seen in pre renal acute kidney injury ?
 A) Casts in urine
 B) High urine sodium
 C) High urea: creatinine ratio
 d) Eosinophils in urine

15. BOdE index is used in predicting prognosis of which among the following ?
 A) Cardiac failure
 B) Cirrhosis
 C) COPd
 d) CVA

16. Hypercalcemia is seen in all the following except
 A) Primary hyperparathyroidism
 B) Secondary hyperparathyroidism
 C) Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
 d) Vitamin d intoxication

17. In a diabetic patient with heart failure which among the following drug will be preferred ?
 A) dPP4 inhibitor
B) SGlT2 inhibitor
 C) GlP1 agonist
 d) Thiazolidinedione

18. A 64 year old male presented with ascites. Ascitic fluid study showed albumin of 1.5g. His serum albumin is 3 gm. Which among the following is the most likely cause of ascites in this patient ?
 A) Cirrhosis
 B) malignancy
 C) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Tuberculosis

19. In a 30 year old pregnant lady with SlE which among the following autoantibody you will test ?
 A) Anti Sm
 B) Anti histone
 C) Anti RNP
 d) Anti Ro

20. during the evaluation of a patient with anaemia investigations showed elevated bilirubin, elevated ldH, elevated ferritin, low platelet count and normal reticulocyte
count. What is the likely cause of anaemia ?
 A) Deficiency of iron
B) Deficiency of erythropoietin
 C) Deficiency of B12
 D) Deficiency of globin

21. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is diagnosed by the following investigations except
 A) lupus anticoagulant
 B) β2 glycoprotein IgG and Igm
 C) Antithrombin
 d) Anticardiolipin antibodies IgG and Igm

22. In monozygotic placentation conjoined twins are caused by incomplete division occuring after _________ days of fertilization.
 A) 3 days
 B) 4 days
 C) 13 days
 d) 8 days

23. Proteinuria in pregnancy is defined as
 A) ≥ 400 mg in 24 hours of urine
 B) Protein creatinine ratio ≥ 0.3
 C) dipstick of 2+
d) None of the above

24. The current WHO and FIGO recommendation for the active management of third stage of labour is
 A) Intravenous infusion in doses of 20 U of oxytoxin in 500 ml of saline
 B) Intramuscular injection of 10 U of oxytoxin within one minute of delivery of the baby
 C) Slow intravenous injection of 0.25 mg ergometrine as the anterior shoulder is being delivered
d) None of the above

25. The most common position in breech presentation is
 A) Right sacroanterior
 B) left sacroanterior
 C) Right occipitoanterior
 d) None of the above

26. Which one is a contraindication for vacuum extraction in the following list ?
 A) Vaginal birth after caesarean
 B) Face presentation
 C) Prolonged second stage
d) deep transverse arrest
Question Cancelled

27. Name the oxytoxin antagonist which is safe and effective as a tocolytic agent.
 A) Ritodrine
 B) Indomethacin
 C) Atosiban
 d) Nifedipine

28. The fibrinous band of adhesions in the perihepatic space as seen during laproscopy in cases of pelvic inflammatory disease is suggestive of
 A) Frolich syndrome
 B) Kallmann syndrome
 C) Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
d) None of the above

29. Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted disease. Following statements are true about this organism except
 A) Cause punctate strawberry spots on the vagina
 B) It is not uncommon in pregnancy
 C) It’s ingress to the vagina is favoured by low pH
 D) In a fresh wet film preparation it is in constant motion

30. A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea. Her FSH and lH levels were normal. She failed to get withdrawl bleeding with progestins as well as
oestrogen and progestin combination. This is suggestive of
 A) Anorexia nervosa
 B) Asherman syndrome
 C) Ovarian failure
d) Hyperprolactinemia

31. Progestogens are the main hormones used in abnormal uterine bleeding. The progestogen induces the enzyme __________ and causes endometrial atrophy.
 A) Aromatase
 B) Oestradiol 17β dehydrogenase
 C) 5α reductase
 d) Cyclooxygenase

32. In invitro fertilization the test which is useful in selecting the best sperm for fertilization is
 A) Vasogram
 B) miller-Kurzrok test
 C) Sperm agglutination test
 d) Hypo-osmotic swelling test

33. A reliable, sensitive and cost effective alternative to pap smear in low resource settings is
 A) liquid based cytology
 B) Endocervical scrape cytology by endocervical brush
 C) Speculoscopy
d) Visual inspection of acetowhite areas

34. Therapeutic indications for hysteroscopy includes all except
 A) Uterine septum
 B) Asherman’s syndrome
 C) Embedded IUCD
 D) Large intramural fibroid

35. All are seen in chronic calcific pancreatitis except
 A) diabetis mellitus
 B) Fat malabsorbtion
 C) Hypercalcemia
d) Increased incidence of pancreatic carcinoma

36. Subdural hematoma most commonly result from
 A) Rapture of intracranial aneurysm
 B) Rapture of cerebral arterio venous malformation
 C) Injury to cortical bridging veins
d) Hemophilia

37. Features of extradural hemorrhage include all except
 A) Severe hypotension
 B) deteriorating consciousness
 C) Fixed dilated pupil on the same side
d) Fracture line crossing the temporal bone

38. After three weeks of duration, pancreatic pseudocyst 5 cm in size should be managed by which method ?
 A) Cystogastrostomy
 B) Needle aspiration
 C) External drainage
 d) Ultra sonogram and follow up

39. most common cause of Ogilvie’s syndrome
 A) Head injury
 B) Electrolyte abnormalities
 C) Carcinoma
 d) drugs
Question Cancelled

40. Which of the following scenario is considered a contraindication in the use of tamoxifen ?
 A) major surgical procedure within the previous six months
 B) A history of deep vein thrombosis, transient ischemic attack
 C) Bylateral asymptomatic cataract
 D) A 60 yr. old woman currently on a SSRI for hot flashes

41. A bed ridden patient post surgery developed low grade fever, pain on leg and pedal edema on day 5th POd. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
 A) Cellulitis
 B) deep vein thrombosis
 C) Necrotising fascitis
 d) Varicose vein

42. main disability following Classical radical neck dissection is due to paralysis of which muscle ?
 A) Subscapularis
 B) deltoid
 C) Trapezius
 d) Pectoralis major

43. Which patient has better prognosis in breast cancer ?
 A) luminal A
 B) luminal B
 C) Patient who has triple test negative
 d) Patient who has triple test positive

44. Treatment of posterior flail segment is
 A) Strapping
 B) Open reduction and fixation
 C) No treatment is required
 D) External fixatore application

45. The following are features of thromboangiitis obliterans except
 A) Raynaud’s phenomenon
 B) migrating thrombophlebitis
 C) Segmental panarteritis
d) Polymorphs and giant cells are abscent on histopathology

46. myxomatous degeneration occurs only in which lipoma ?
 A) Retroperitonial
 B) Subfascial
 C) Submucosal
 d) Subcutaneous

47. Following are true for verrucous carcinoma except
 A) Very slow growing
 B) Poorly differentiated carcinoma
 C) Spread by lymphatics is not common
 d) Surgery is the best treatment

48. The following are true for venous ulcer formation except
 A) Ambulatory venous hypertension
 B) Free radical release
 C) Fibrin, fibronectin, collagen IV
 D) Haem deposition

49. What is the analysis to be done to compare whether there is a significant difference in the mean hemoglobin measurement between boys (n = 100) and an equal number of girls studying in a higher secondary school ?
 A) z-test
 B) paired t-test
 C) chi-square test
d) correlation

50. In a positively skewed frequency distribution the following is true
 A) mean = median = mode
 B) mean > median > mode
 C) mean < median < mode
 d) mode > mean > median

51. The analysis to be done for determining whether there is an association between smoking and lung cancer in a case control study is
 A) Odds ratio
 B) Risk ratio
 C) Chi-square test
 d) Relative risk

52. The following are primary levels of prevention, except
 A) Sanitation
 B) Screening for tuberculosis
 C) Immunisation
 d) Handwashing

53. Unemployment due to loss of foot in an accident is
 A) Impairment
 B) disability
 C) limitation
 d) Handicap

54. Children Act for prevention and control of juvenile delinquency is
 A) Social stress
 B) Social problem
 C) Social defense
 d) Social pathology

55. Which of the following are defense mechanisms to deal with problems, difficulties or failures ?
 i. Projection
 ii. dissolution
 iii. displacement
 iv. Compensation
 A) i, ii, iii
 B) ii, iii, iv
 C) i, ii, iv
 d) i, iii, iv

56. In a study to assess the association between smoking and lung cancer, 10,000 smokers and an equal number of non-smokers were followed up for 5 years. Among
smokers 100 developed lung cancer and among non-smokers 10 developed lung cancer. To what extend can the disease under study be attributed to the exposure ?
 A) 10
 B) 90
 C) 86
d) 81.8

57. Which of the following statement is correct ?
 A) In hookworm infection, man is the reservoir and contaminated soil the source of infection
 B) In typhoid fever, a case or carrier is the source of infection and contaminated food or water the reservoir
 C) Index case is the first case of communicable disease introduced into the population unit under study
d) In latent infection, the host continues to shed the infectious agent without exhibiting any signs and symptoms

58. A man came to the hospital with complaints of a stray cat scratch over left forearm. On examination, there was oozing of blood. He gave a history of completed anti-rabies vaccination 3 years back. What is the recommended post-exposure management ?
 A) Intra dermal rabies vaccination on 0, 3, 7, 28th day with rabies immunoglobulin
 B) Intra dermal rabies vaccination on 0, 3, 28th day with rabies immunoglobulin
 C) Intra dermal rabies vaccination on 0, 7th day without rabies immunoglobulin
d) Intra dermal rabies vaccination on 0, 3rd day without rabies immunoglobulin

59. Which of the following statement is correct ?
 A) Under integrated disease surveillance project, syndromic diagnosis is made on the basis of clinical pattern by paramedical personnel
 B) laQshya program was launched to improve basic newborn care and resuscitation
 C) SUmAN program was launched to improve quality of care in labour room and maternity OTs in public health facilities
d) Vandemataram scheme provides free delivery and caesarean section

60. Which of the following is cyclo-developmental transmission ?
 A) malarial parasite in Anopheles mosquito
 B) Filarial parasite in Culex mosquito
 C) Plague bacilli in rat Flea
d) yellow fever virus in Aedes mosquito

61. Which of the following is true regarding indicators of Acute Flaccid Paralysis (AFP) surveillance ?
 A) At least one case of non-polio AFP should be detected annually per 10,000 population aged less than 15 yrs.
 B) Two stool specimens should be collected 48 hrs. apart within 14 days of onset of AFP
 C) At least 90% of AFP cases should have follow-up examination for residual paralysis at 60 days after onset of paralysis
d) At least 80% of expected routine AFP surveillance report should be received on time

62. The following is true, except
 A) In rural areas, the build-up area of houses should not exceed one-third of the total area
 B) Cattle sheds should be at least 25 feet away from dwelling houses
 C) Height of the roof of a house should not be less than 10 feet
d) Well should be located 15 feet away from any likely source of contamination

63. The radiological features in Chest X-ray of Hyaline membrane disease (Respiratory distress Syndrome of Prematurity) are all except
 A) Reticulogranular pattern
 B) Ground glass opacity
 C) Hyperinflation
 D) Air bronchogram

64. Which is not a usual cause of neonatal jaundice appearing within 24 hours ?
 A) Rh incompatibility
 B) ABO incompatibility
 C) Intrauterine infections
 d) Neonatal sepsis

65. Which worm infestation in children can result in rectal prolapse ?
 A) Pin worm
 B) Whip worm
 C) Round worm
 d) Hook worm

66. Regarding Trisomy 21 (down syndrome), which statement is incorrect ?
 A) At increased risk for congenital and acquired hypothyroidism
 B) Increased risk for hearing loss
 C) Increased risk for Atlantoaxial subluxation
d) Translocation is the most common cause

67. microcephaly is not commonly associated with
 A) Congenital Cytomegalovirus infection
 B) Edward syndrome
 C) Congenital Hypothyroidism
d) Fetal hydantoin syndrome

68. The pathological lesion associated with spastic diplegia is
 A) multicystic encephalomalacia
 B) Periventricular leukomalacia
 C) Selective neuronaI necrosis
 d) Status marmoratus

69. Oligo articular Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis is a type of Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis in which
 A) 4 or less number of joints involved over a period of 6 weeks
 B) 4 or less number of joints involved over a period of 6 months
 C) 2 or less number of joints involved over a period of 6 weeks
d) 2 or less number of joints involved over a period of 6 months

70. The treatment of Kawasaki disease include all except
 A) Aspirin
 B) Intravenous immunoglobulin
 C) Steroids
 d) Antibiotics

71. Regarding 21-Hydroxylase deficiency (the commonest cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia), all are true except
 A) It can present as ambiguous genitalia in newborn period
 B) It can present with failure to thrive and recurrent vomiting in infancy
 C) It can be diagnosed by estimation of 17 hydroxy Progesterone
d) It can present with hypertension

72. The earliest post conceptional age at which the neural tube fuses completely is
 A) 4 weeks
 B) 8 weeks
 C) 12 weeks
 d) 16 weeks

73. Which infection is more common in Galactosaemia ?
 A) Escherichia Coli
 B) Pseudomonas
 C) Acinetobacter
 d) Gram positive bacteria

74. One of the criteria in the definition of Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) in children aged 6 months to 59 months according to WHO is
 A) Weight for Age less than – 3 (minus 3) Standard deviation
 B) Weight for Age less than – 2 (minus 2) Standard deviation
 C) Weight for Height less than – 3 (minus 3) Standard deviation
d) Weight for Height less than – 2 (minus 2) Standard deviation

75. Pugilistic attitude is seen in
 A) Head injury
 B) Flame burns
 C) Electrocution
 d) drowning

76. Grievous hurt is defined in Indian Penal Code
 A) S. 320
 B) S. 302
 C) S. 304
 d) S. 300

77. In medical negligence, the death of a person by any Rash or Negligent Act comes under which Section of Indian Penal Code ?
 A) S. 306
 B) S. 324
 C) S. 304 A
 d) S. 307

78. Stiffening of muscles that occur in a dead body after the primary flaccidity has disappeared is
 A) Cadaveric spasm
 B) Algor mortis
 C) liver mortis
 d) Rigor mortis

79. Blood collected for chemical analysis is preserved in
 A) Sodium fluoride
 B) Sodium acetate
 C) Sodium citrate
 d) Sodium thiosulphate

80. Predominant Contre-coup cerebral injuries in traumatic brain injury suggests
 A) Concussion
 B) Blunt injury
 C) Acceleration – deceleration injuries
 d) diffuse axonal injury

81. Regarding gun stalk deformity of the humerus in children
 1. It is a complication of displaced lateral condyle fracture.
 2. It is produced by posterior tilt, medial tilt and internal rotation of the distal fragment in supracondylar fractures.
 3. The deformity gets corrected by remodelling of the bone as the child attains skeletal maturity.
 A) 1 and 2 are correct
 B) 1 and 3 are correct
 C) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 2 alone is correct

82. Tuberculosis of the thoracic spine can produce
 1. A paraspinal abscess on the posterior thoracic wall which may cross the mid-line.
 2. A parasternal abscess.
 3. A knuckle deformity.
 A) 1 alone is correct
 B) 1 and 2 are correct
 C) 2 and 3 are correct
 d) 3 alone is correct

83. Compound palmar ganglion
 1. Can produce carpal tunnel syndrome.
 2. Can produce rupture of the long flexor tendons.
 3. Can occur in rheumatoid arthritis.
 4. Can produce impairment of sensations of the medial one and a half fingers.
 A) All the above statements are correct
 B) All except 4 are correct
 C) Only 1 and 2 are correct
 d) Only 1 is correct

84. A healthy 70 year old male with osteoarthritis of the hip sustains an intracapsular fracture of neck of femur is ideally treated by
 A) Excision arthroplasty
 B) Hemiarthroplasty
 C) Fixation of the fracture with 3 cannulated cancellous screws
d) Total hip replacement

85. A 35 year old male presents to the ENT OPd with complaints of recurrent episodes of sudden onset vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, left ear fullness and a hissing type of tinnitus. On examination, there was nystagmus with fast component towards the right side. Rinne’s test was positive and Weber was lateralised to right ear. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding his disease ?
 I. Carharts notch is a characteristic feature in the pure tone audiogram.
 II. Schwartz sign is usually present in the tympanic membrane during active phase of the disease.
 III. Summating potential to Action potential ratio in Electrocochleography will be more than 30%.
 IV. Endolymphatic sac decompression can be done if the vertigo is disabling and hearing needs to be preserved.
 A) I only
 B) I and II only
 C) III and IV only
 d) II and III only

86. Which of the following statements regarding epistaxis is untrue ?
 A) Woodruff’s plexus appear to originate from the posterior wall of nasopharynx and is arterial in origin
 B) Bleeding from above the middle turbinate is mainly contributed by the vessels of internal carotid system
 C) SmR operation can be done for persistent or recurrent epistaxis
d) TESPAl gives high success in control of refractory posterior bleed

87. A tracheostomised patient with Portex cuffed tracheostomy tube, in the ward developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. What will be the best next step
for the management ?
 A) Jaw thrust and jet ventilation
 B) Suction the tube with saline
 C) laryngeal mask airway
d) Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube

88. All of the following statements are false except
 A) Ascending pharyngeal artery from internal carotid is the main arterial supply of tonsil
 B) Quinsy is the collection of pus in the retropharyngeal space as a complication of chronic follicular type of tonsillitis
 C) Irwin Moore’s sign is seen in chronic fibroid type of tonsillitis
d) Tonsilloliths can be seen in acute tonsillitis when the crypts are blocked with retention of debri and deposition of inorganic salts of calcium and magnesium

89. Punctate sub capsular cataract in children seen in
 A) down Syndrome
 B) Galactosemia
 C) marfans Syndrome
 d) myotonic dystrophy

90. The common Glaucomatous visual field defects are all except
 A) Central scotoma
 B) Seidel’s scotoma
 C) Arcuate scotoma
 d) Ring scotoma

91. Central serous choroidopathy :- all are true except
 A) Sudden onset
 B) Preferentially in young males
 C) Positive scotoma and metamorphopsia
d) Visual acuity is correctable by use of concave lens

92. Quadrantic hemonymous visual field defect seen in
 A) Compression of optic chiasma
 B) Occipital corlex infarct
 C) Temporal lobe lesion
 d) lesion in optic radiation
Question Cancelled

93. A 20 year old girl presented to the Skin OPd with the complaints of fever and rash of 2 days duration. On examination she was found to have multiple vesicles on
an erythematous base mainly distributed over the trunk and proximal extremities. Her oral examination revealed erosions. Tzanck smear from the vesicle revealed
multinucleated giant cells. On enquiring further, she gave a history of similar complaints in her roommate 2 weeks back. The drug of choice in this condition is
 A) Amoxycillin
 B) Prednisolone
 C) Valacyclovir
 d) Ivermectin

94. A 40 year old man presented with multiple painful nodules associated with fever since 1 month. The nodules used to subside in 2-3 days following which he used to
develop fresh crops of similar lesions. Each episode was associated with a spike of fever. He also complained of arthralgia and redness of eyes. He was started on
mB mdT for hypopigmented lesions 2 months back. How would you approach this patient ?
 A) Stop mdT. Start the patient on second line therapy
 B) Continue mdT. Start the patient on thalidomide
 C) Stop mdT. Restart once the lesions completely subside
d) Reassure the patient and continue mB mdT only

95. All of the following statements are true about pemphigus vulgaris except
 A) It presents with flaccid blisters and erosions
 B) Nikolsky sign is positive
 C) Direct immunofluorescence shows linear deposits of IgG and C3 along the dermoepidermal junction
d) Rituximab is found to be an effective treatment modality for pemphigus vulgaris

96. A 40 year old man presents with intensely pruritic, flat topped, violaceous papules and plaques on the flexor aspect of upper limbs and trunk since 3 weeks. On
examination he is found to have white plaque in a lacy pattern on his buccal mucosa. The dermatologist in charge orders for a skin biopsy for histopathological examination. The biopsy is most likely to show –
 A) Civatte bodies
 B) Acantholytic cells
 C) multinucleated giant cells
 d) munro’s micro abscess

97. A nine year old boy was brought for evaluation of abdominal pain of six months duration. Repeated physical examinations and extensive investigations did not reveal
a definite diagnosis. Mother reported that the child throws out tantrums in the morning hours to avoid going to school. The child confided to the doctor that he is very fearful about any accidents that might happen to his mother. The diagnostic possibility is
 A) Factitious disorder
 B) Conduct disorder
 C) Phobia
 d) Separation Anxiety disorder

98. Which among the following is the most defining feature of Major Depressive Disorder ?
 A) Anhedonia
 B) Insomnia
 C) delusion of reference
 d) Temporal correlation with a stressor

99. A twenty year old student was brought with academic decline and social withdrawal. He expressed suspicions that he is being watched by electronic devices hidden
in his house and classroom. He claimed he can hear the conversation of other people commenting on his intentions and discussions of his activities. He has been
experiencing these difficulties for the past 9 months. He is most probably suffering from
 A) Bipolar disorder
 B) delusional disorder
 C) Schizophrenia
 d) Personality disorder

100. Advance directive in mental health care means
 A) The “will” written by a person with mental illness with regard to the administration of his properties
 B) Right of a person to specify the way he/she wishes to be cared for and treated for a mental illness
 C) The direction given by the magistrate to doctors in the care of the mentally ill prisoners
d) The instructions given by the psychiatrist for rehabilitation of patients with chronic mental illness