Assistant Professor in Pathology Question Paper and Answer Key

 PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 27/2024/OL
Category Code: 334/2023
Exam: Assistant Professor in Pathology
Date of Test 20-03-2024
Department Medical Education

Question1:-All of the following are clearing agents except
        A:-10% formalin
        B:-Xylene
        C:-Toluene
        D:-Chloroform
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question2:-Toning in reticulin stain is done using
        A:-Potassium metabisulphite
        B:-Silver solution
        C:-Gold chloride
        D:-Ammonia solution
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question3:-PAS stain is used to demonstrate all except
        A:-Glycogen
        B:-Mucin
        C:-Amoeba
        D:-Collagen
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question4:-Fluid used for museum mounting is
        A:-Carnoy's fluid
        B:-Kaiserling's fluid
        C:-Ethyl alcohol
        D:-Acetic acid
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question5:-Temperature of cryostat is
        A:-–15 - –20°C
        B:-–2 - –3°C
        C:-–30 - –40°C
        D:-–40 - –50°C
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question6:-Number of sections cut by mm block at
        A:-300
        B:-500
        C:-750
        D:-800
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question7:-Following are types of necrosis
        A:-Fat necrosis
        B:-Coagulative necrosis
        C:-Liquefactive necrosis
        D:-All of above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-All are arachidonic acid metabolites except
        A:-Prostaglandins
        B:-Leukotrienes
        C:-Thromboxane
        D:-Serotonin
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question9:-All are causes of oedema except
        A:-Lymphatic obstruction
        B:-Sodium retention
        C:-Decreased plasma osmotic pressure
        D:-Arteriolar obstruction
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question10:-All are components of Virchow's triad except
        A:-Endothelial injury
        B:-Stasis or turbulent blood flow
        C:-Hyper coagulity of blood
        D:-Activation of fibrinolyte pathway
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-Type III hypersensitivity is due to
        A:-antigen antibody complexes
        B:-IgE antibody protection
        C:-Antibody mediated
        D:-Cell mediated
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question12:-Following are components of CREST syndrome
        A:-Calcinosis
        B:-Raynaud's phenomenon
        C:-Sclerodactyly
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question13:-All of the following are oncogenes except
        A:-c myc
        B:-n myc
        C:-Eg7 receptors
        D:- gene
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question14:-All of the following are autosomal recessive syndromes of defective DNA repair except
        A:-Xeroderma pigmentosum
        B:-Bloom syndrome
        C:-Ataxia telangiectasia
        D:-Neurofibromatosis lac Z
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question15:-All of the following are chemical carcinogens except
        A:-Vinyl chloride
        B:-Benzene
        C:-Nickel compounds
        D:-Acetaldehyde
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question16:-Special stain for tubercle bacilli is
        A:-Reticulin
        B:-A7B stain
        C:-PAS
        D:-Methenamine silver
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question17:-Grenz zone is seen in which leprosy
        A:-Lepromatous
        B:-Tuberculoid
        C:-Both
        D:-None of above
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-Massive necrosis with superadded putrefaction is the definition of
        A:-Gangrene
        B:-Thrombosis
        C:-Embolism
        D:-Shock
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-All are substances secreted in paraneoplastic syndrome except
        A:-ACTH
        B:-ADH
        C:-Calcitonin
        D:-Serotonin
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question20:-All are DNA oncogenic viruses except
        A:-EB virus
        B:-MPV
        C:-Hepatitis B Virus
        D:-Hepatitis A virus
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-Following are criteria for diagnosis of cystic fibrosis
        A:-One or more characteristic phenotypic features
        B:-History in a sibling
        C:-↑ sweat chloride concentration in 2 or more occasions
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question22:-Following are lysosomal storage disorders
        A:-Tay Sach's disease
        B:-Wiemann - Pick diseases
        C:-Gaucher disease
        D:-All of above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question23:-Guardian of the genome is
        A:-p53
        B:-n myc
        C:-c myc
        D:-VEG7
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question24:-All are fats of thrombus except
        A:-Thromboembolism
        B:-Dissolution
        C:-Stasis
        D:-Organisation
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question25:-All are presentations of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome except
        A:-Eczema
        B:-Thrombocytopenia
        C:-Embolism
        D:-Recurrent infectious
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-All are three viral enzymes found in the viral cone of HIV virus except
        A:-reverse transcriptase
        B:-protease
        C:-lipase
        D:-integrase
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-Which of the following tumour is CA IX positive
        A:-Chromophobe renal cell carcinoma
        B:-Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma
        C:-Papillary renal cell carcinoma
        D:-Renal oncocytoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question28:-Following are the examples of syndromes associated with Wilm's tumour except
        A:-Alport syndrome
        B:-Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
        C:-Denys-Drash syndrome
        D:-WAGR syndrome
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question29:-Hobnail appearance of glands is specific feature of
        A:-Clear cell carcinoma endometrium
        B:-Endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma
        C:-Serous carcinoma endometrium
        D:-Carcino sarcoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question30:-Which of the following is the stage of tumour for Neuroblastoma according to international staging system if the tumour is localized, grossly resected imcompletely, representative ipsilateral non adherant lymph nodes negative for tumour microscopically?
        A:-Stage 1
        B:-Stage 2A
        C:-Stage 2B
        D:-Stage 3
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question31:-The RS cells in classic Hodgkin's Lymphoma are positive for
        A:-CD15, CD30, CD45
        B:-CD20
        C:-CD15, CD30, PAX5
        D:-CD20, PAX5
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-All the following are the causes of left sided cardiac failure except
        A:-Mitral stenosis
        B:-Ischaemic heart disease
        C:-Hypertension
        D:-Corpulmonale
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question33:-All the following are the conditions associated with Asbestos exposure except
        A:-Bronchial asthma
        B:-Caplan syndrome
        C:-Pleural plaque
        D:-Mesothelioma
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question34:-Hairy Leukoplakia is caused by
        A:-EBV
        B:-HPV
        C:-Herpes Simplex Virus
        D:-HTLV-1
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question35:-Which of the following condition is characteristically associated with intra epithelial lymphocytosis?
        A:-Ischaemic bowel disease
        B:-Celiac disease
        C:-Cystic fibrosis
        D:-Enteric fever
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question36:-The following condition is associated with maplike pattern of strong cytoplasmic glutamine synthetase enzyme staining of cells
        A:-Hepato blastoma
        B:-Hepato cellular adenoma
        C:-Focal nodular hyperplasia liver
        D:-Cholangio carcinoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question37:-Crystalloids of Reinke is associated with
        A:-Embryonal carcinoma
        B:-Leydig cell tumour
        C:-Sertoli cell tumour
        D:-Seminoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-RAS mutation is commonly associated with the following neoplasm
        A:-Papillary thyroid carcinoma
        B:-Follicular carcinoma thyroid
        C:-Medullary carcinoma thyroid
        D:-Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question39:-Civatte bodies are characteristically seen in the following condition
        A:-Bullous pemphigoid
        B:-Pemphigus vulgaris
        C:-Psoriasis
        D:-Lichen planus
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question40:-The cytogenetic abnormality t(x:17) (p11.2; q2.5) is specifically associated with the following tumour
        A:-Alveolar soft part sarcoma
        B:-Clear cell sarcoma
        C:-Ewing's sarcoma
        D:-Rhabdomyo sarcoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-Lewy body is diagnostic hall mark of
        A:-Alzheimer disease
        B:-Dermatomyositis
        C:-Myesthenia gravis
        D:-Parkinson disease
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-The retinal vasculopathy of diabetes mellitus can associated with all the following except
        A:-Micro aneurysm
        B:-Neovascular membrane
        C:-Cytoid bodies
        D:-Retinal detachment
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question43:-Which of the following condition is closely associated with cardiac Rhabdomyoma?
        A:-Carney's syndrome
        B:-Neurofibroma
        C:-Rheumatoid arthritis
        D:-Tuberous sclerosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question44:-The specific immuno histo chemical marker of chordoma is
        A:-EMA
        B:-Brachyury
        C:-S100
        D:-Melan A
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question45:-The gene BRCA-1 responsible for familial breast cancer is located on
        A:-Chromosome 7
        B:-Chromosome 12
        C:-Chromosome 17
        D:-Chromosome 21
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-All the following immuno histochemical markers are positive for Embryonal carcinoma except
        A:-C-KIT
        B:-PLAP
        C:-CD30
        D:-CK
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question47:-The collection of blood in capillaries of dependent parts of the body after death is termed as
        A:-Algor mortis
        B:-Rigor mortis
        C:-Livor mortis
        D:-Putrifaction
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question48:-Rigor mortis first appears in
        A:-Biceps muscle
        B:-Quadriceps muscle
        C:-Sternocleido mastoid
        D:-Orbicularis oculi
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question49:-Grade 2 narrowing of lumen of coronary artery is characterised by narrowing
        A:-upto 10%
        B:-upto 25%
        C:-upto 50%
        D:-upto 75%
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question50:-The amount of preservative, sodium fluoride used for collection of blood during post mortem is
        A:-150 mg/30 ml blood
        B:-250 mg/30 ml blood
        C:-300 mg/30 ml blood
        D:-350 mg/30 ml blood
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question51:-The condition in which the kidneys are symmetrically contracted and diffusely granular cortical surface is
        A:-IgA nephropathy
        B:-Acute tubular necrosis
        C:-Chronic glomerulo nephritis
        D:-Urate nephropathy
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-Protection against Plasmodium vivax is seen in the following
        A:-Common Hereditary elliptocytosis
        B:-Hemolytic Hereditary elliptocytosis
        C:-Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis
        D:-South east asian ovalocytosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question53:-The proliferation and survival of myeloma cells is dependent on
        A:-IL 6
        B:- IL 2
        C:-TNF a
        D:-TGF
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-Inheritance pattern of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is
        A:-Autosomal dominant
        B:-Autosomal recessive
        C:-X linked recessive
        D:-None of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question55:-Features of Anemia of chronic diseases include
        A:-Increased amount of stored iron
        B:-High levels of serum ferritin
        C:-Low total iron binding capacity
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-The following are included in the differential count in a case of Acute Myeloid Leukemia
        A:-Myeloblast, monoblast and megakaryoblast
        B:-Myeloblast, promonocytes and erythroblast
        C:-Myeloblast, megakaryoblast and erythroblast
        D:-Myeloblast, monoblast, promonocyte and magakaryoblast
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-42/F, K/C/O Rheumatoid Arthritis developed Hypochromic Microcytic Anemia and was given iron therapy. However, she did not improve and her peripheral blood picture showed hypochromic microcytic anemia. Which of the following statements regarding the persistence of blood picture is correct?
(i)     Presence of increased levels of IL6
(ii)    Reduction in erythropoietin levels
(iii)   Iron sequestration
        A:-(i) only
        B:-(i) and (ii) only
        C:-(ii) and (iii) only
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question58:-Which of the following statements is correct regarding HIV associated thrombocytopenia?
(i)     It is due to the presence of HIV receptors CD 4 and CXCR 4 on megakaryocytes.
(ii)    There is B cell hyperplasia and increased auto antibody production.
(iii)   There is immune complex deposition on platelet membrane
        A:-(i) and (ii) only
        B:-(ii) and (iii) only
        C:-(i) and (iii) only
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question59:-EBV associated T cell Lymphoma include all except
        A:-Extra nodal NK/T cell Lymphoma
        B:-Enteropathy associated T cell Lymphoma
        C:-Systemic EBV + T cell Lympho Proliferative disease of childhood
        D:-Hydroavacciniforme like T cell Lymphoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-Langerhans cell histiocytosis cells express the following
        A:-CD1a, langerin and S 100
        B:-Vimentin and CD68
        C:-CD4
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question61:-The following is true about spherocytes They are seen in
(i)     Hereditary spherocytosis
(ii)    Delayed transfusion reaction
(iii)   ABO hemolytic disease of new born
(iv)   Auto immune hemolytic anemia
(v)   Bacterial toxins
        A:-(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
        B:-Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
        C:-(i), (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-Different crises seen in Sickle cell anemia are
        A:-Sickle cell crisis
        B:-Hemolytic crisis
        C:-Megaloblastic crisis
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question63:-Diagnostic criteria of Essential Thrombocytosis include all except
        A:-JAK 2 mutation
        B:-BCR-ABL Translocation
        C:-CALR mutation
        D:-MPL mutation
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question64:-In a 7 part Automated Hematology Analyzer, in addition to Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Eosinophil, Basophil and Monocyte, the differential counts include
        A:-NRBC and blasts
        B:-NRBC and large immature cells (including blasts and immature granulocytes)
        C:-Large immature cells (including blasts and immature granulocytes) and atypical lymphocytes (including small blasts)
        D:-NRBC and atypical lymphocytes (including small blasts)
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question65:-Quality control is defined as
        A:-Overall programme that ensures that the final results reported are correct
        B:-Procedure to determine the quality of the results generated by the laboratory
        C:-Measures that must be included during each assay run to verify that the test is working properly
        D:-Monitoring the test procedures to ensure continual evaluation of the reliability of the daily work of the lab with validation of tests before reports are released
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question66:-Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase shows strong staining of Auerrods in
        A:-t(16:6)
        B:-t(8:21)
        C:-t(9:11)
        D:-t(1:22)
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-Cellular changes due to excess EDTA include all except
        A:-RBC and WBC shrinkage and degeneration
        B:-RBC and WBC swelling and degeneration
        C:-Platelet swelling
        D:-Platelet fragmentation and false thrombocytosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question68:-Advantages of q RT-PCR in monitoring Minimal Residual Disease are
        A:-Permits quantification of DNA of interest in starting material
        B:-Minimizing risk of contamination
        C:-Automated technique
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question69:-Antiphospholipid Protein Antibodies (APA) are associated with the presence of Lupus Anticoagulant (LA), anti Cardiolipin Antibody (a CL) and
antibodies to group I. They show the following except
        A:-Thrombotic phenomenon
        B:-Bleeding tendencies
        C:-In vitro inhibitor effect in coagulation assays
        D:-Abnormal VDRL tests
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question70:-Causes of ADAMTS13 deficiency include
        A:-Sepsis
        B:-Metastatic neoplasm
        C:-Pregnancy
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question71:-All are true about Protein Z except
        A:-It is a Vitamin K dependent plasma protein
        B:-Reduced levels are seen in Nephrotic syndrome
        C:-It is linked to Intra Uterine deaths and Intra Uterine growth retardation
        D:-It is seen in Acute Coronary Syndrome
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question72:-All are true about Cell Salvage
        A:-Blood is collected using anticoagulants intra or post operatively
        B:-Vacuum pressure between 0 and 40 mmHg is needed for this
        C:-Transfused RBCs have active oxygen carrying capacity
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-Hemovigilance includes
        A:-Systemic surveillance of adverse transfusion reaction
        B:-Encompasses the whole transfusion chain
        C:-It is aimed at improving the safety of the transfusion process
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question74:-Carbohydrate blood groups include all except
        A:-H and ABO antigen systems
        B:-Lewis and P antigen systems
        C:-Rh blood group system
        D:-I blood group system
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-Examples of Therapeutic Apheresis include
        A:-Plasma exchange
        B:-Photopheresis
        C:-Specific selective adsorption
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-Basic elements of Quality Management System in Transfusion Medicine include,
        A:-Documentation and record keeping
        B:-Suppliers and material management
        C:-Monitoring and evaluation
        D:-All of the above
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question77:-Types of probes which can be used for performing FISH include all except
        A:-Locus specific probes
        B:-Taqman probes
        C:-Telomerase specific probes
        D:-Whole chromosome paining probes
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question78:-Which of the following is false regarding C-ANCA?
        A:-Is directed against proteinase 3 in granules of neutrophils
        B:-Positivity is indicated by perinuclear fluorescence in alcohol fixed neutrophils
        C:-Detection can be done by indirect immunofluorescence
        D:-Positive test is typical of Wegner's Granulomatosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question79:-Which of the following is true regarding CISH?
        A:-Has greater sensitivity and better resolution than FISH
        B:-Can be performed using dual, triple or multicolor fluorescent probes
        C:-Analysis of CISH require fluorescence microscopes with image analysis mechanism
        D:-Concurrent analysis of morphologic features of tumor cells and gene copy number can be studied
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question80:-RT-PCR
        A:-Used to measure the quantity of amplified PCR product in addition topresence or absence of specific DNA and RNA
        B:-Used to amplify RNA targets
        C:-Helps in identification of single nucleotide polymorphisms
        D:-Is the technique which can use 2 or more primer sets for amplification of different targets in the same reaction mixture
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Reactive mesothelial cells in effusions are
        A:-Seen as complex cell aggregates without cell windows
        B:-Columnar cells having eccentrically placed nuclei
        C:-Characterized by loss of MTAP and BAP expression
        D:-Positive for CK and Calretinin and negative for Ber EP4
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question82:-Cytological stain used to detect Barr body include all except
        A:-Biebrich Scarlet
        B:-Acetic Orcein
        C:-Nile Blue Sulphate
        D:-Cresyl Violet
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-Which of the following is true regarding Diff-Quik stain?
        A:-It is a rapid modification of Papanicolaou stain
        B:-Direct restaining with Papanicolaou stain is possible without prior destaining
        C:-Nuclear details are well preserved
        D:-Not useful for highlighting cytoplasmic elements
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-Carnoy's fixative contain all except
        A:-Ethanol
        B:-Polyethylene glycol
        C:-Glacial acetic acid
        D:-Chloroform
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question85:-Following are cytological features of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors except
        A:-Loosely clustered uniformly preserved cells
        B:-Tumor cells with anchoring thin walled vessels
        C:-Cells with plasmacytoid morphology
        D:-Background cell debris and necrotic material
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question86:-Cytological features of chondroblastoma include all except
        A:-Mononuclear cells with admixed osteoclast like giant cells having similar nuclear morphology
        B:-Fragments of myxoid marix in background
        C:-Nuclear grooving
        D:-Cells with well defined deeply eosinophilic cytoplasm
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question87:-The presence of dispersed cells with scant cytoplasm and perinuclear deposits of cytokeratin positive IF buttons are characteristic of
        A:-Lympho epithelial carcinoma
        B:-Adenoid cystic carcinoma
        C:-Merkel cell carcinoma
        D:-Malignant melanoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question88:-IHC positivity for CK7&CK20 in lymph node aspirate smears can be used to diagnose metastasis from
        A:-Adrenocortical carcinoma
        B:-Urothelial carcinoma
        C:-Colorectal carcinoma
        D:-Small cell carcinoma lung
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question89:-Soderstrom bodies are best identified in air dried MGG stained smears of
        A:-Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm pancreas
        B:-De quervain's thyroiditis
        C:-Reactive hyperplasia lymph node
        D:-Chordoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question90:-Features of ASCUS include all except
        A:-Densely keratinized squamous cells with pyknotic nuclei
        B:-Cytoplasmic vacuolization in intermediate squamous cells
        C:-Metaplastic squamous cells with enlarged nuclei
        D:-Karyomegaly in para basal cells
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question91:-"Minimally invasive" is the designation for thyroid neoplasms demonstrating
        A:-invasion of vessels by neoplastic cells inside the tumor or in sub capsular location
        B:-Encapsulated follicular pattern with complete transcapsular penetration by neoplastic cells without vascular invasion
        C:-Questionable trans capsular penetration/questionable vascular invasion
        D:-Encapsulated follicular pattern with angio invasion involving <4 vessels
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question92:-Feature of reactive gastropathy include all except
        A:-Foveolar hyperplasia
        B:-Intestinal metaplasia
        C:-Diffuse nuclear hyperchromasia
        D:-Dense inflammatory infiltrate in lamina propria
        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-All of the following are true regarding mesonephric adenocarcinoma of the female genital tract except
        A:-Are tumors known to behave in an aggressive manner
        B:-Histologically characterized by high grade nuclear atypia and areas of mucinous, squamous and ciliated differentiation
        C:-Typically mismatch repair protein proficient
        D:-Progesterone Receptor (PR) negative
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question94:-The IHC marker positive in epithelioid sarcoma
        A:-INI-1
        B:-CD31
        C:-Cytokeratin AE1/AE3
        D:-MUC 4
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question95:-The characteristic genetic fusion in alveolar soft part sarcoma
        A:-EWSR1-ATF1
        B:-ASPSCR1-TFE3
        C:-EWSRI-CREBEL2
        D:-ASPSCR1-EP400
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-Which of the following is true regarding latest WHO classification of gliomas?
        A:-The designation NOS is added to a diagnosis when the histologic/molecular/IHC features are incongruent with essential diagnostic criteria of any specific WHO entity
        B:-Loss of PTEN & EGFR amplification characterize higher grade gliomas
        C:-Grade 2 oligodendrogliomas are characterized by loss of 9p21 and PIK3CA mutation
        D:-Grade 3 oligodendrogliomas are characterized by allelic loss of 1p & 19q
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question97:-SMARC A4 deficient neoplasms are characterized by all except
        A:-Negativity for all lineage specific markers indicating a primitive phenotype
        B:-Predominance of tumors with basaloid morphology
        C:-Nuclei with vesicular chromatin and prominent macro nucleoli
        D:-Brisk mitotic activity and extensive geographic necrosis
        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question98:-Most common histologic type of lymphoma associated with breast implants
        A:-ALCL
        B:-Extranodal T/NK cell lymphoma
        C:-DLBCL
        D:-Marginal zone lymphoma
        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question99:-Monomorphic Epitheliotropic Intestinal T cell lymphoma (MEITL)
        A:-Is an indolent lymphoproliferative disorder of the GIT
        B:-Shows prominent angioinvasion and necrosis
        C:-Is CD56 positive
        D:-Is coeliac disease associated
        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-Which of the following is false regarding papillary RCC?
        A:-Diversity in molecular alterations in PRCC has led to the 2022 WHO recommedation against subtyping into Type1 & Type2
        B:-Papillary architecture is seen in ELOC mutated RCC
        C:-AMACR & Vimentin immuno reactivity is seen in majority of cases
        D:-Presence of psammoma bodies, foamy macrophages and hemosiderin laden macrophages constitute the specific diagnostic microscopic feature
        Correct Answer:- Option-D