PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 12/2024/OL
Category Code: 407/2022
Exam: Deputy Manager (Finance Accounts and Secretarial)
Date of Test 30-01-2024
Department Travancore Sugars and Chemicals Ltd
Question1:-Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Premium payable on the redemption of preference shares must be paid out of the profit only.
Statement II : Amount of capital redemption reserve may be applied by the company to issue fully paid-up bonus shares to the members
A:-Both statements are True
B:-Both statements are False
C:-Statement I is True and Statement II is False
D:-Statement I is false and Statement II is True
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question2:-Which among the following are correct with regard to the remedies available for secured debenture holders in case of default in payment of principal
amount or interest
I. To file a suit for the sale of property charged
II. To file a suit for foreclosure
III. To make an appointment of receiver
A:-I, II and III
B:-I and II only
C:-II and III only
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question3:-On the cessation of office of first auditor of the company, the subsequent auditor shall be appointed by
A:-Board of directors
B:-Company
C:-CAG
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question4:-Based on the following statements choose the most appropriate answer :
Statement I : The companies prescribed by the central government shall have atleast one women director.
Statement II : Every listed company shall have at least half of the total number of directors as independent directors.
A:-Both statement are correct
B:-Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
C:-Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
D:-Both statements are incorrect
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question5:-Quorum required for a public company meeting where the number of members as on the date of meeting is between 1000 and 5000
A:-5
B:-10
C:-15
D:-30
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question6:-Who is authorized to give direction regarding change of name of an existing company in case the name resembles an existing company
A:-Company Law Board
B:-Tribunal
C:-Board of directors
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question7:-Form of Memorandum of Association for unlimited company having share capital
A:-Table B
B:-Table C
C:-Table D
D:-Table E
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question8:-Which among the following is the most appropriate answer regarding disqualifications to be appointed as managing director of a company
I. A person who has attained the age of 70
II. A person who is an undischarged insolvent
III. A person who has made a composition with his creditors
A:-All of the above
B:-I and II only
C:-I and III only
D:-II and III only
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question9:-For a company which employed a managing director or whole-time director, maximum limit of remuneration for ordinary director is
A:-1% of net profit
B:-2% of net profit
C:-3% of net profit
D:-5% of net profit
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question10:-Auditor of a government company is appointed by
A:-Ministry of corporate affairs
B:-President
C:-Comptroller and Auditor General
D:-Central Government
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question11:-Which among the following are considered as valid forms of prospectus
I : Red-Herring prospectus
II : Shelf prospectus
III : Any notice or circulars inviting offers from public
A:-I and II only
B:-I and III only
C:-II and III only
D:-I, II and III
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question12:-Which among the following statements regarding share warrants are correct.
Statement I : It can be issued only when shares are fully paid.
Statement II : It can not be transferred by mere delivery.
A:-I only
B:-II only
C:-None of the above
D:-Both I and II
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question13:-With regard to the following statements about book keeping, choose the most appropriate answer.
Statement I : Job of a book keeper is basically analytical in nature.
Statement II : Book keeper does not check and supervise the work of accountant.
A:-Statement I is true and Statement II is false
B:-Statement I is false and Statement II is true
C:-Both statements are true
D:-Both statements are false
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question14:-Which among the following is not a modifying principle of accounting
A:-Materiality principle
B:-Objectivity principle
C:-Conservatism principle
D:-Consistency principle
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question15:-With regard to the ascertainment of adjusted closing capital in single entry system, which among the following option is correct
A:-Drawings and additional capital are added to closing capital
B:-Drawings deducted and additional capital added to closing capital
C:-Drawings added and additional capital deducted from closing capital
D:-Drawings and additional capital are deducted from closing capital
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question16:-Which among the following statements are true about ledger
Statement I : Ledger is prepared on the basis of source documents.
Statement II : Ledger serves the basis for the preparation of final accounts.
A:-Statement I is False and Statement II is True
B:-Statement I is True and Statement II is False
C:-Both Statements are True
D:-Both statements are false
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question17:-Freight and insurance on a new machinery is a
A:-Deferred revenue expenditure
B:-Revenue expenditure
C:-Capital expenditure
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question18:-Among the following choose the correct statements :
I. The power to forfeit shares must be expressly given in memorandum of associated of company
II. Board must pass a resolution for forfeiture of shares.
III. Profit prior to incorporation can be used to create capital reserve
A:-I and II only
B:-I and III only
C:-II and III only
D:-I, II and III
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question19:-Following statements relates to debenture issue. Choose the most appropriate answer.
Statement I : Debentures can be issued for consideration other than cash.
Statement II : Debentures can be issued as collateral security.
A:-Statement I is true and statement II is false
B:-Statement I is false and statement II is true
C:-Both statements are false
D:-Both statements are true
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question20:-Loss on issue of debenture can be written off from
A:-Capital profit only
B:-Revenue profit only
C:-Capital profit or revenue profit
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question21:-A company may purchase its own shares out of
A:-Free reserves
B:-Securities premium account
C:-Proceeds of any shares or other specified securities
D:-All the above means
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question22:-Choose the most appropriate answer with regard to the parties authorized to inspect books of accounts of a company
A:-Registrar
B:-Officers authorized by SEBI
C:-Both registrar and officers authorized by SEBI
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question23:-Business risk can be measured by
A:-Combined Leverage
B:-Financial Leverage
C:-Operating Leverage
D:-Negative Leverage
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question24:-Marginal Cost of capital is the cost of
A:-Additional Sales
B:-Additional Fund
C:-Additional Interest
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question25:-The excess of current assets over current liabilities is called
A:-Net current assets
B:-Working capital
C:-Net working capital
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question26:-IRR of a project is that rate where NPV tends to
A:-Zero
B:-Less than one
C:-More than one
D:-One
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question27:-A company's share with a face value of Rs. 10 each are quoted at Rs. 50 in the stock market. Current rate of dividend is 50% and this is expected to grow
at a steady rate of 5% p.a. Calculate the cost of equity capital of the company
A:-14%
B:-15%
C:-20%
D:-10%
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question28:-Financial statements of two or firms can be made for drawing inferences is termed as
A:-Comparative analysis
B:-Horizontal analysis
C:-Interfirm comparison
D:-External analysis
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question29:-CAPM stands for
A:-Capital asset pricing model
B:-Capital amount printing model
C:-Capital amount pricing model
D:-Capital asset printing model
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question30:-Which of the following helps to analysing return to equity shareholders?
A:-Return on assets
B:-Earnings per share
C:-Net profit ratio
D:-Return on investment
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question31:-Dividend irrelevance argument of MM model is based on
A:-Issue of Debentures
B:-Issue of Bonus share
C:-Arbitrage
D:-Hedging
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question32:-A number of checks and controls exercised in a business to ensure its efficient working is known as
A:-Internal Check
B:-Internal control
C:-Internal audit
D:-Statutory audit
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question33:-A company auditor can be removed by
A:-Board of Directors
B:-General Meeting
C:-Any director
D:-Managing director
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question34:-Before the work of audit is commenced, the auditor plans out all the audit work is known as
A:-Audit plan
B:-Audit program
C:-Audit check
D:-Audit note
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question35:-The process of checking the evidence of the entries is called
A:-Valuation
B:-Observation
C:-Inspection
D:-Vouching
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question36:-Undervaluation of stock is
A:-Technical error
B:-Error of Omission
C:-Error of principal
D:-Compensating error
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question37:-Which of the following statement is correct?
A:-Valuation is a part of verification
B:-Verification is a part of valuation
C:-Verification has nothing to do with valuation
D:-Verification and valuation are the same
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question38:-Qualified Report means
A:-Clear Report
B:-Non submission of report
C:-Auditor express an opinion with reservation of material nature but not pervasive
D:-Pending report
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question39:-Rights and Duties of an auditor are covered under _______ of the Companies Act 2013.
A:-Section 153
B:-Section 143
C:-Section 141
D:-Section 128
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question40:-Select the correct option about the recommendation of task force of mechanism for Whistle Blowing
i. Employees can report concerns about unethical behavior, actual/suspected fraud or violation of code of conduct or ethics policy.
ii. Safeguarding the employees who avail of the mechanism against victimization
iii. Does not allow employees, direct access to the Chairperson of audit committee
A:-All i, ii, iii are correct
B:-Only i and ii are correct
C:-Only ii and iii are correct
D:-Only i and iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question41:-Select the correct option regarding the legal provisions contained in Indian Companies Act, 2013 about Corporate Governance
i. Holding of a minimum of 2 meetings of the board each year.
ii. Mandatory appointment of one woman director on the board of listed companies
iii. Mandatory appointment of committees likes CSR committee, audit committee and so on
A:-Only i and ii are correct
B:-Only ii and iii are correct
C:-Only i and iii are correct
D:-All i, ii, iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question42:-Amendment to Clause 49 of the listing agreement by SEBI, explains about
A:-Chairman shall be independent director
B:-50% of the board shall be independent directors where the non-executive chairman is a promoter
C:-An Independent director can be appointed for a term of upto 5 consecutive years
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question43:-Select the correct option about the objectives of a regulation framework regarding merger and acquisition (M&A):
i. curbing malpractices in the M&A transactions
ii. protection of shareholders rights and interests
iii. adequate compensation for shareholders in open offers
A:-All i, ii, iii are correct
B:-Only i and iii are correct
C:-Only i and ii are correct
D:-Only ii and iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question44:-Select the correct option about the Blue Ribbon Committee Recommendation on effectiveness of Corporate Audit Committee :
i. concentrates more on the independence of audit committee
ii. instituting audit committee disclosures
iii. mandating auditor interim financial review
A:-Only i and ii are correct
B:-Only ii and iii are correct
C:-Only i and iii are correct
D:-All i, ii, iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question45:-Indian corporate governance focuses on
A:-Protection of minority shareholders
B:-Accountability of board of directors and management
C:-Timely reporting of financial and adequate disclosures to shareholders
D:-All of these
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question46:-Select the correct option about remuneration of non-executive directors (NEDs) :
i. Fixed contractual remuneration, not linked to profits to NEDs
ii. If fixed remuneration is not opted, a commission on profits
iii. If commission is paid, NEDs are eligible for stock option
A:-All i, ii, iii are correct
B:-Only i and ii are correct
C:-Only ii and iii are correct
D:-Only i and iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question47:-Which of the following option is correct about index mutual funds?
i. Recurring expenses are low
ii. Transaction costs are low
iii. Systematic risk is eliminated
A:-Only i
B:-Only i and ii
C:-Only i and iii
D:-All of the above i, ii, iii
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question48:-Time value of the option in the following case is : Market price of a share is Rs. 160; the Exercise Price of a call option on the share is
Rs. 150; and the market price of the call option is Rs. 20
A:-Rs. 10
B:-Rs. 20
C:-Rs. 15
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question49:-Which option is correct about selection of fixed income securities?
i. Yield to maturity
ii. Default risk
iii. Tax shield
A:-Only i and ii are relevant
B:-Only ii and iii are relevant
C:-Only i and iii are relevant
D:-All i, ii, iii are relevant
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question50:-What is the periodical rate of return of a mutual fund when NAV at the beginning is Rs. 100, NAV at the closing is Rs. 110 and Dividend paid is Rs. 10?
A:-10%
B:-15%
C:-20%
D:-5%
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question51:-Which is the correct option about SEBI?
i. SEBI shall have a chairman
ii. 2 members from Central Ministry and One member from RBI
iii. 5 other members of whom atleast 2 shall be the whole time members
A:-Only i and ii are correct
B:-Only i and iii are correct
C:-Only ii and iii are correct
D:-All i, ii, iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question52:-Penalty for fraudulent and unfair trade practices u/s 15 HA of SEBI Act
A:-25 Crore rupees or 3 times the amount of profits made out of such practices, whichever is higher
B:-10 Crore rupees or 2 times the amount of profits made out of such practices, whichever is higher
C:-20 Crore rupees or 3 times the amount of profits made out of such practices, whichever is higher
D:-10 Crore rupees or 3 times the amount of profits made out of such practices, whichever is higher
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question53:-To restrict the high volatility on daily price bands on the exchanges, which option is correct as per SEBI's surveillance mechanism?
i. Imposition of a weekly cap of 25% on price band
ii. Consider the previous day's closing price as the uniform reference point for the calculation of price bands
iii. To have a uniform daily price band of 10%
A:-Only i and ii are correct
B:-Only ii and iii are correct
C:-Only i and iii are correct
D:-All i, ii, iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question54:-Select the correct option about the features of primary market :
i. Direct issue to investors
ii. Company receives money and issues new securities
iii. Company mobilizes capital by offering already issued securities
A:-All i, ii, iii are correct
B:-Only i and ii are correct
C:-Only ii and iii are correct
D:-Only i and iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question55:-Select the correct option about factors considered for IPO grading by credit rating agencies
i. Business prospects and competitive position
ii. Financial position of the company
iii. Infrastructural facilities of the company
A:-Only i and iii are correct
B:-Only ii and iii are correct
C:-Only i and ii are correct
D:-All i, ii, iii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question56:-Select the correct option about SEBI's role on opinion of credit rating agency
i. Credit rating agency's opinion is binding on SEBI
ii. Credit rating agency's opinion is binding on investor and SEBI is liable
iii. The investor is free to accept or reject the opinion of the agency and SEBI is not liable
A:-All i, ii, iii are correct
B:-Only i is correct
C:-Only ii is correct
D:-Only iii is correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question57:-Which among the following is a progressive tax?
A:-GST
B:-Sales Tax
C:-Property Tax
D:-Income Tax
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question58:-Given below are two statements
Statement 1 : Transfer of a capital asset includes compulsory acquisition
Statement 2 : Previous year always starts on 1st April In the light of above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A:-Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect
B:-Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
C:-Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
D:-Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question59:-The rate of income tax are fixed by
A:-Income Tax Act
B:-Notifications and Circulars by CBDT
C:-Income Tax Rules
D:-The Finance Act
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question60:-Who among the following may be "not ordinarily resident"?
A:-Company
B:-Association of Person
C:-Firm
D:-Hindu Undivided Family
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question61:-Compensation received by an employee on termination of his service is a
A:-Revenue Receipt
B:-Casual Receipt
C:-Capital Reciept
D:-None of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question62:-Which of the following is not an income taxable as income from other sources
A:-Director's fees
B:-Income from markets, ferries and fisheries
C:-Rent of land appurtenant to any building
D:-Agricultural income from land situated outside India
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question63:-Relative for the taxability of gift means :
1. Parents of the individual
2. Spouse of the individual
3. Brother or sister of the Spouse of the individual
4. Brother or sister of either of the parents of the individual.
A:-Only 1 and 2
B:-Only 1
C:-Only 2
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question64:-Which of the following statements are correct
Statement 1 : Amount received from Statutory Provident Fund on retirement by a government employee is fully exempt from tax
Statement 2 : Encashment of earned leave after retirement by a government employee is fully exempt from tax
A:-only statement 1 is correct
B:-only statement 2 is correct
C:-both 1 and 2 are correct
D:-neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question65:-The basis of income from house property is
A:-Annual Value
B:-Standard Rent
C:-Municipal Value
D:-Fair Rental Value
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question66:-The maximum rent which a person can legally recover from his tenant under the Rent Control Act is
A:-Standard Rent
B:-Fair Rent
C:-Municipal Value
D:-Actual rent
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question67:-Following is an expense disallowed under Profits and Gains from business
A:-Loss on robbery, dacoity an embezzlement of cash
B:-Interest on borrowed capital
C:-Wealth Tax
D:-Expenses in connection with Income tax proceedings
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question68:-Capital assets includes :
A:-Stock in Tade
B:-Deposit certificates issued under the Gold Monetisation Schems, 2015
C:-Special Bearer Bonds
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question69:-For claiming exemption u/s. 54B, the assessee should purchase an agricultural land within a period of
A:-Two years of transfer
B:-Three years of transfer
C:-Five years of transfer
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question70:-When a depreciable asset is sold after holding 36 months, there will be
A:-Long term capital gain
B:-Short term capital gain
C:-Long term capital gain or loss
D:-Short term capital gain or loss
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question71:-A debit note is issued by the supplier under sec.34 when
A:-The tax charged in the invoice exceeds the tax payable on the supply
B:-The taxable value shown in the invoice is lesser than the taxable value of the supply
C:-The goods supplied are returned by the recipient
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question72:-In case of reverse charge, tax is paid to the Government by
A:-Supplier
B:-Buyer
C:-Manufacturer
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question73:-Activities or transactions which shall be treated neither as supply of goods nor supply of services is given under which schedule of GST
A:-Schedule I
B:-Schedule II
C:-Schedule III
D:-Schedule IV
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question74:-Every taxpayer who has successfully registered under GST is issued a GST registration certificate in Form
A:-GST REG - 02
B:-GST REG - 05
C:-GST REG - 04
D:-GST REG - 06
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question75:-Which of the following manufacturer cannot opt for composition levy
A:-Manufacturer of Pan Masala
B:-Manufacturer of ice-cream
C:-Manufacturer of tobacco
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question76:-Value of supply under section 15 of CGST Act is
A:-Transaction value
B:-Market value
C:-Wholesale price
D:-Maximum retail price
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question77:-Zero rated supply includes
A:-Export of goods or both
B:-Supply of goods or service to a SEZ developer or SEZ unit
C:-Both of the above
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question78:-Duty imposed for the purpose of protecting the interests of any domestic industry in India aiming to make it more competitive
A:-Protective Duty
B:-Safeguard Duty
C:-Antidumping Duty
D:-Countervailing duties on subsidised articles
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question79:-Which of the following are correct about Goods and Service tax?
Statement 1 : The Commissioner under Sec. 69 can authorise any Officer to arrest a person who has committed specified offences
Statement 2 : Any amount payable by a taxable person shall be paid within a period of 3 months from the date of service of an order
A:-1 only
B:-2 only
C:-Both 1 and 2
D:-Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question80:-The document which contains the detailed information to customs about goods in the vessel or an aircraft entering a country is called as
A:-Import General Manifest
B:-Bill of entry
C:-Import report
D:-Both (1) and (3) above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question81:-For imported goods, the conversion in value shall be done with reference to the rate of exchange prevalent on the date of filing of
A:-Bill of entry under section 46
B:-Shipping bill (vessel or aircraft) under section 50
C:-Bill of export (vehicle) under section 50
D:-Either (2) or (3)
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question82:-Bill of entry can be presented for
A:-Home consumption
B:-Warehousing
C:-Clearance from warehouses for home consumption
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question83:-There are ___________ elements of cost
A:-Two
B:-Three
C:-Four
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question84:-The basic objective of cost accounting is ________
A:-Cost ascertainment
B:-Profit analysis
C:-Financial analysis
D:-Tax compliance
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question85:-Time spend by workers to meet their personal needs is an exmaple for
A:-Abnormal idle time
B:-Normal idle time
C:-Labour turnover
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question86:-An increase in variable cost leads to
A:-Increase in margin of safety
B:-Increase in P/V ratio
C:-Increase in Break even point
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question87:-Time and motion study is conducted by
A:-Stores department
B:-Personnel department
C:-Engineering department
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question88:-Minimum wages are guaranteed to every worker under
A:-Gantt task and bonus plan
B:-Halsey plan
C:-Rowan plan
D:-Straight piece rate system
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question89:-Preliminary expenses is an example of
A:-Fictitious asset
B:-Fixed asset
C:-Current asset
D:-Wasting asset
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question90:-Depreciation on plant and machinery is a part of
A:-Selling overhead
B:-Distribution overhead
C:-Office overhead
D:-Factory overhead
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question91:-If P/V ratio is 60% is sales, then the remaining 40% of sales is
A:-Profit
B:-Variable cost
C:-Fixed cost
D:-Semi-variable cost
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question92:-Material price variance can be calculated by
A:-(AQ*AP) - (AQ*SP)
B:-(AP*SP) - (AQ*SP)
C:-(AQ*SP) - (SQ*SP)
D:-(AQ*SP) - (AQ*AP)
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question93:-Break even point is the point at which
A:-Contribution = fixed cost
B:-Sales = total cost
C:-Sales curve cuts total cost line
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D
Question94:-Bonus under Halsey plan is paid
A:-at 50% of time saved
B:-at 75% of time saved
C:-at 80% of time saved
D:-at 100% of time saved
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question95:-FDI stands for
A:-Federal Dept. of Investigation
B:-Foreign Development Index
C:-Foreign Direct Investment
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Question96:-Competition Commission of India was established in
A:-14th October, 2003
B:-14th March, 2003
C:-14th May, 2003
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question97:-In foreign trade, an adverse balance of trade occurs, when
A:-Import exceeds export
B:-Imports and exports are equal
C:-Export exceeds import
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question98:-As per Competition Act, 2002, _____________ is the price at which goods are sold below the cost to eliminate competition.
A:-Preparatory price
B:-Predatory price
C:-MRP
D:-Cost price
Correct Answer:- Option-B
Question99:-The minimum number of members to be appointed by Central Government in CCI as per Competition Act, 2002 is
A:-2
B:-3
C:-4
D:-6
Correct Answer:- Option-A
Question100:-The competition policy aims at all
A:-Ensuring economic efficiency
B:-Promotion of free tade
C:-Promoting and sustaining competitions in markets
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C
Deputy Manager (Finance Accounts and Secretarial) Question Paper and Answer Key
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