Laboratory Technician Gr II/ Laboratory Assistant Gr II Question Paper and Answer Key

Question Code: 114/2022

Name of Post: Laboratory Technician Gr II/ Laboratory Assistant Gr II

Department: Animal Husbandry

Cat. No: 638/2021 & 162/2022

 Date of Test: 15.11.2022

1. The characteristic features of trophozoites of Giardia spp. are:
(A) Single nucleus, pseudopodia and kinetoplast
(B) One macronucleus, cilia and food vacuoles
(C) Two symmetrical nuclei, central axostyle and flagella
(D) Four nuclei, rod shaped chromatoid bodies and cyst wall

2. Schistosoma spindale eggs are:
(A) Napolean hat shaped with miracidium and a terminal spine
(B) Boomerang shaped with miracidium inside
(C) Triangular with hexacanth embryo
(D) Oval with yolk cells and operculum

3. Wet blood film examination is preferred for detection of:
(A) Anaplasma marginale
(B) Theileria annulata
(C) Babesia bigemina
(D) Trypanosoma evansi

4. Number of legs in larval acarines:
(A) Six legs
(B) Eight legs
(C) Ten legs
(D) None of the above

5. The stain best suited to demonstrate intracellular parasites:
(A) Gram’s stain
(B) Giemsa stain
(C) Field stain
(D) Diff-quik stain

6. Method of transmission of trypanosomosis by Tabanus fly:
(A) Biological transmission
(B) Cyclical transmission
(C) Mechanical transmission
(D) Larval transmission

7. Organs of attachment in a trematode:
(A) Suckers
(B) Bothria
(C) Buccal capsule
(D) Both (A) and (B)

8. The optimum temperature time combination for sterilizing glass wares in a hot air oven is:
(A) 100°C for 10min
(B) 160°C for 10min
(C) 160°C for one hour
(D) 120°C for 15min

9. Incomplete posterior spiracle with three slits and a button are seen in the maggots of:
(A) Oestrus ovis
(B) Musca domestica
(C) Calliphora spp
(D) Sarcophaga spp

10. Bug odour in adult bugs is caused by:
(A) Mehlis glands
(B) Paratergal plates
(C) Stink glands
(D) Laures gland

11. A quantitative method for the determination of the severity of helminthic infections:
(A) Eggs per gram
(B) Stoll’s method
(C) McMaster counting technique
(D) All the above

12. Which of the following is a dog tapeworm?
(A) Echinococcus granulosus
(B) Moneizia benedeni
(C) Taenia solium
(D) Davainea proglottina

13. Lymph node smear can be prepared for diagnosis of schizogonous stages of the following:
(A) Toxoplasma gondii
(B) Theileria spp.
(C) Babesia bigemina
(D) Anaplasma marginale

14. The most common site for blood collection in ruminants:
(A) Saphenous vein
(B) Jugular vein
(C) Femoral vein
(D) Cephalic vein

15. The thickness of a blood smear is dependent on:
(A) Size of the drop
(B) Angle of the spreader
(C) Speed with which spreader slide is pushed
(D) All the above

16. The stain that can be used for demonstration of siderocytes:
(A) Alizarin red
(B) Methyl blue
(C) Prussian blue
(D) Congo red

17. The diluting fluid used for erythrocyte counting:
(A) Thoma’s fluid
(B) Hayem’s solution
(C) Pilot’s solution
(D) Hinkleman’s solution

18. The type of anemia seen in iron deficiency:
(A) Microcytic, hyperchromic
(B) Macrocytic, hyperchromic
(C) Microcytic, hypochromic
(D) Macrocytic, hypochromic

19. The test used to detect bile pigments in urine:
(A) Ross test
(B) Lignin test
(C) Sulkowitch test
(D) Gmelin test

20. The special stain used to demonstrate fat in tissues:
(A) Oil red O
(B) Trichrome
(C) Alizarin red
(D) Congo red

21. The type of jaundice in which van den Bergh’s test give biphasic reaction:
(A) Prehepatic
(B) Hepatic
(C) Post hepatic
(D) Both (B) and (C)

22. The nutrient component of milk determined by Gerber test:
(A) Protein
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Fat
(D) All the above

23. Ascending grades of alcohol is used in tissue processing and staining for:
(A) Hydration
(B) Clearing
(C) Impregnation
(D) Dehydration

24. The species of animal in which Rouleaux formation is highest:
(A) Cow
(B) Dog
(C) Horse
(D) Goat

25. The volume of semen per ejaculate is highest in:
(A) Bull
(B) Boar
(C) Stallion
(D) Ram

26. Which of the following anticoagulants is indicated by green capped vacutainer tubes?
(A) Heparin
(B) EDTA
(C) Sodium citrate
(D) ACD

27. Total magnification under high power in a compound microscope:
(A) 40X
(B) 400X
(C) 4000X
(D) 100X

28. In which of the following systems, virus is not cultured:
(A) Mac Conkey Agar
(B) Laboratory animal
(C) Cell culture
(D) Embryonated egg

29. Which of the following decolourizer is used in Acid fast staining?
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Ethyl Alcohol
(C) Acid Alcohol
(D) Acetic acid
Question deleted

30. The mordant that is used in Gram’s staining is:
(A) Gram’s Iodine
(B) Potassium Iodide
(C) Carbol fuchsin
(D) Crystal violet

31. Which of the following is not a compound stain?
(A) Gram’s stain
(B) Leishman’s stain
(C) Wright’s stain
(D) Giemsa stain

32. An infection after medical or surgical management, whether or not patient was hospitalized:
(A) Nosocomial infection
(B) Latrogenic infection
(C) Chronic infection
(D) Peracute infection

33. Percentage of agarose is maximum in:
(A) Liquid media
(B) Solid media
(C) Semisolid medium
(D) Peptone water

34. Zoonotic disease means:
(A) Disease transmitted from human to animals
(B) Disease transmitted from animal to human
(C) Disease transmitted from human to animal and vice versa
(D) Disease affecting animals only

35. Lactophenol cotton blue stain is associated with staining of:
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa

36. Which of the following is not an anti-coagulant used in blood sample collection?
(A) EDTA
(B) Potassium Iodide
(C) Sodium Citrate
(D) Heparin

37. Which of the following is not a serological test?
(A) ELISA
(B) Agar gel precipitation test
(C) FAT
(D) PCR

38. In Mac Conkey agar, lactose fermenter colonies will be:
(A) Pink colour
(B) Colourless
(C) White colour
(D) Blue colour

39. Temperature for serum inactivation to destroy complement:
(A) 50°C
(B) 56°C
(C) 60°C
(D) 63°C

40. Which of the following is dry heat sterilization?
(A) Boiling
(B) Pressure cooker
(C) Autoclave
(D) Hot air oven

41. Which of the following is the perfect microbial sterilization condition of Hot air oven?
(A) 100°C for one hour
(B) 121°C for 15 min
(C) 160°C for one hour
(D) 121°C for 30 min

42. The counter stain used in Acid fast staining:
(A) Dilute carbol fuchsin
(B) Loeffler’s alkaline methylene blue
(C) Crystal violet
(D) ZN carbol fuchsin

43. Which of the following is not used as enzyme in ELISA?
(A) Alkaline phosphatase
(B) Horse radish peroxidase
(C) Beta galactosidase
(D) Glutamate dehydrogenase

44. Medium containing bile salt:
(A) Tryptic soy agar
(B) Sabouraud dextrose agar
(C) Mac Conkey agar
(D) Chocolate agar            

45. Percentage of Potassium hydroxide for fungal detection from skin scrapings:
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 10%
(D) 40%

46. Widal test is used for diagnosis of:
(A) Typhoid
(B) Cholera
(C) Anthrax
(D) Salmonellosis

47. Antiglobulin test is:
(A) Coombs test
(B) Widal test
(C) Strauss test
(D) Abortus Bang ring test

48. Which of the following is Gram negative, non-spore forming bacteria?
(A) Bacillus anthracis
(B) Clostridium botulinum
(C) Listeria monocytogenus
(D) Eschericia coli

49. McFaydean reaction is for detecting:
(A) Bacillus subtilis
(B) Bacillus anthracis
(C) Clostridium tetani
(D) Clostridium novyi

50. Media prepared using blood :
(A) Mac Conkey agar
(B) Chocolate agar
(C) Tryptic soy agar
(D) Albimi agar

51. Which of the following is a differential staining method?
(A) Wright’s attaining
(B) Leishman’s staining
(C) Acid fast staining
(D) Levaditi staining

52. Expand HACCP :
(A) Hazard And Critical Care Point
(B) Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point
(C) Hazard And Control Care Point
(D) Hazard Analysis Care Control Point

53. The organism which causes Food intoxication :
(A) Coxiella burnettii
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Bacillus cereus
(D) Clostridium botulinum

54. Pick out the one which is not an Emulsifier :
(A) Gelatin
(B) Vegetable gum
(C) Caesin
(D) Proprionate

55. The Range of Specific Gravity of Milk at 15.6 degree Celsius :
(A) 1.02 – 1.05
(B) 1.10 – 1.50
(C) 0.09 – 1.0
(D) 1.12 – 1.15

56. Dextrinisation process of Starch includes the following the changes :
1. Starch hydrolyses to simpler forms
2. Colour and flavour changes
3. Development of burnt, toasted flavour due to Enzymatic browning
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All the above (1,2 and 3)

57. The Fat globule size in Homogenised Milk :
(A) 0.1 – 20 micro meter
(B) 0.001 – 0.005 micro meter
(C) 0.006 – 0.0010 micro meter
(D) 0.0015 – 0.0020 micro meter

58. Government of India Promulgated PFA and FPO act in the year :
(A) 1954, 1955
(B) 1954, 1956
(C) 1955, 1956
(D) 1956, 1954

59. Which of the following Statements are correct Cheese Making?
1. Processing of Milk in to Cheese removes most of the water soluble Vitamins
2. Protein Concentration increases during Cheese Manufacture
3. Lactose Concentration increases during Cheese Manufacture
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) All the above (1, 2 and 3)
(D) 1 and 2 only

60. Which of the following statements are correct about quality of Meat products?
1. The main Parameters of fresh Meat quality is colour and Marbling
2. To retain colour Oxygen is removed during Packaging
3. The Myoglobin whose main role in living Muscle is to bind Oxygen needed for various
Chemical reactions
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) All the above (1, 2 and 3)
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

61. Which of the following statements are correct on Adulteration of Food as per PFA?
1. If any constituent of the Article has been wholly or in part abstracted so as to affect injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
2. If any inferior or cheaper substance has been substituted wholly or in part for the Article, so as to affect injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
3. If the article contains any prohibited preservatives or permitted preservatives in excess of the prescribed limits
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) All the above (1, 2 and 3)
(D) 2 and 3 only

62. Which of the following statements are correct for AGMARK standards?
1. The AGMARK Act was enacted by the Govt. of India in 1938
2. The Directorate of Marketing and Inspection established under this Act, has set up a number Analytical Laboratories and commodities testing centres
3. The AGMARK standards are quality standards depending on the degree of excellence of the produce
(A) All the above (1, 2 and 3)
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only

63. Which of the following statements are correct to Mould as a Microorganism?
1. Moulds grow over a wide range of PH from quite acid to fairly alkaline PH 2.0 – 8.5
2. Moulds are smaller than Bacteria and probably harmful
3. Moulds grow most rapidly at Temperature of 20-35 degree Celsius
(A) All the above (1, 2 and 3)
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

64. The working distance of a low power objective is :
(A) 0.5 - 1.5 mm
(B) 5 - 6 mm
(C) 0.15 - 0.20 mm
(D) None of the above

65. The height preferred for laboratory work benches where one stands to work is :
(A) 34-36 inches
(B) 40-42 inches
(C) 26-28 inches
(D) 46-48 inches

66. Which glassware is used for the preparation of reagents where great accuracy is required?
(A) Standard flask
(B) Measuring cylinder
(C) Conical flask
(D) Beaker

67. Fire caused by flammable liquids can be extinguished using :
(A) Water
(B) Fire blanket
(C) CO2 fire extinguisher
(D) All of the above

68. Name an instrument which utilizes the working principle ‘steam under pressure’ :
(A) Incubator
(B) Autoclave
(C) Water bath
(D) Hot air oven

69. Identify the chemical which is not stored in brown coloured bottle :
(A) Iodine
(B) Potassium permanganate
(C) Sodium nitroprusside
(D) Hydrogen fluoride

70. Which of the following is not true regarding an analytical balance?
(A) Close the door of the balance while weighing
(B) Use your hands to handle weights
(C) Balance the pans before putting the weights
(D) Balance should be in the resting positions before removing the weights

71. Which of the following specimens should be processed immediately after collection?
(A) Urine
(B) Stool
(C) CSF
(D) Blood

72. Scalds are not caused by :
(A) Hot water
(B) Contact with hot objects
(C) Hot oil
(D) Steam

73. One of the chemicals listed below is stored under water to prevent explosion. Identify it.
(A) Picric acid
(B) Nitric acid
(C) Trichloro acetic acid
(D) Sulphosalicylic acid

74. Which among the following is not a monochromator?
(A) Prism
(B) Filter
(C) Diffraction grating
(D) Mirror

75. In quality control what does the term ‘Precision’ refers to :
(A) Ability of a method to determine solely the analyte
(B) Close to the actual value or true value
(C) Closeness of the result on repeated analysis
(D) Ability of a method to detect smallest quantity of analyte

76. Which label should be exhibited on the containers that handles pathogenic organisms or materials that may contain them?
(A) Toxic
(B) Biohazard
(C) Harmful
(D) Irritant

77. Thrombocytes are formed from :
(A) Reticulocytes
(B) Megakaryocyte
(C) Myeloblast
(D) Pronormoblast

78. Fouchet’s reagent for testing bilirubin in urine contains :
(A) TCA, 10% ferric chloride, distilled water
(B) HCl, 10% ferric chloride, distilled water
(C) TCA, Sodium nitroprusside, distilled water
(D) None of the above

79. In double oxalate mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate are mixed in the ratio :
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:3
(C) 3:2
(D) 1:3

80. The concentration of formalin as routine fixative in histopathology is :
(A) 20%
(B) 10%
(C) 40%
(D) 100%

81. Microscopic examination of stool showed the presence of a colourless, plano-convex shaped ova containing a tadpole shaped larva. Identify the ova :
(A) Ova of A. lumbricoides
(B) Ova of T. solium
(C) Ova of A. duodenale
(D) Ova of E. vermicularis

82. Which among the following is not an RBC diluting fluid?
(A) Hayem’s fluid
(B) Dacie’s formol citrate
(C) Toisson’s fluid
(D) Hinglemann’s fluid

83. The pH of buffer used in Leishman’s staining for peripheral smear examination is :
(A) 8.6
(B) 6
(C) 6.8
(D) 9

84. Each 0.1 mm of buffy coat corresponds to about :
(A) 500 WBC/mm3 of blood
(B) 1000 WBC/ mm3 of blood
(C) 2000 WBC/ mm3 of blood
(D) None of the above

85. Which among the following is not a clearing agent?
(A) Dioxane
(B) Xylene
(C) Chloroform
(D) Cedar wood oil

86. Commercially available anticoagulant tubes are universally colour coded. Tube with grey coloured top contains the anticoagulant :
(A) K3EDTA
(B) Heparin
(C) Sodium citrate
(D) Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate

87. In which microtome the block remains stationary and the knife moves during sectioning?
(A) Rocking microtome
(B) Rotary microtome
(C) Sliding microtome
(D) Base Sledge microtome

88. Which urine crystal appears as hexagonal plates?
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Triple phosphate
(D) Cystine crystal

89. —————— gram of NaCl in 1000 ml of solution is equivalent to 1 Molar solution.
(A) 48.5 gm
(B) 40.5 gm
(C) 58.5 gm
(D) None

90. Before cleaning with water, newly purchased Sodalime glassware should be treated overnight with :
(A) 5% HCl
(B) 5% NaOH
(C) 15% NaOH
(D) 5% KOH

91. Example of essential amino acid is :
(A) Alanine
(B) Glycine
(C) Lysine
(D) Tyrosine

92. Glycolysis takes place in :
(A) Cytoplasm
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None

93. Fluoride inhibit —————— enzyme of glycolysis.
(A) Hexokinase
(B) Enolase
(C) Aldolase
(D) Pyruvate

94. —————— is the storage form of lipids in adipose tissue.
(A) LDL
(B) VLDL
(C) Triglycerides
(D) HDL

95. Normal urea level in plasma :
(A) 20 - 40 mg/dl
(B) 50 - 70 mg/dl
(C) 5 - 7 mg/dl
(D) 2 - 4 mg/dl

96. —————— significantly elevated in myocardial infarction.
(A) ALT
(B) AST
(C) Alkaline phosphatase
(D) Acid phosphatase

97. Creatinine estimation is done by :
(A) Berthelot method
(B) Caraway method
(C) BCG method
(D) Jaffes method

98. Acetone is formed in the body as a secondary product from acetoacetic acid by loss of :
(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Water
(D) Carbon monoxide

99. Albustix is a paper strip impregnated with the indicator :
(A) Bromocresol green
(B) Bromothymol blue
(C) Bromocresol purple
(D) Tetrabromophenol blue

100. On which principle does Photo electric colorimeter work?
(A) Beer’s Law
(B) Lambert’s Law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None