Question Code: 067/2022 (A)
Name of Post: Deputy Engineer (Civil) & Assistant
Engineer (Hydrology)
Department: Kerala Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd & Ground Water
Cat. No: 216/2021 & 387/2021
Date of Test: 08.06.2022
1. Determine the deflection at free end of the cantilever of span 4 m in which a point load of 10 kN is acting at a distance of 3 m from fixed end. Take flexural rigidity as 50 x 10² kN m²
(A) 37.5 mm
(B) 26.6 mm
(C) 27.0 mm
(D) 32 mm
2. A three span continuous beam with one end fixed and other supports on rollers, the degree of Static indeterminacy is
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 0
3. The sum of distribution factor in moment distribution method is
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) –1
(D) 3/4
4. A simply supported T beam section with flange 10 x1 cm and web depth from flange 10 cm with 1 cm thickness carrying a uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m over a span of 4 m.The maximum bending stress in the section is at
(A) 3.25 cm from N.A
(B) 7.75 cm from N.A
(C) At the intersection of flange & web
(D) At N.A
5. A pin jointed plane truss considered as stable and determinate, if
(A) m + r < 2j
(B) m + r > 2
(C) m + r = 2j
(D) None of the above
6. A continuous beam ABC with support A hinged, B & C are on rollers have span AB, BC are 6 m & 4 m respectively. There is an internal hinge at the middle of span BC at D. Find the value of ordinate at D corresponding to the I.L.D for the shear at A.
(A) 1
(B) 1/3
(C) –1
(D) –1/3
7. A three hinged parabolic arch has a span of L, central rise h and loaded with a uniformly distributed load of w/unit length on the span. The value of bending moment in the arch on quarter span is
Correct Answer : D
8. A simply supported beam AB of span 8 m supports a point load of 20 kN at 2 m from support A and a uniformly distributed load of 15 kN/m for a length of 4 m from support B. The location of maximum bending moment in the beam is at
(A) 4 m from left support
(B) 5.5 m from left support
(C) 4 m from right support
(D) 3.33 m from right support
9. Kanis method is a
(A) Displacement method
(B) Force method
(C) Virtual work method
(D) None of these
10. In stress strain diagram proof stress is measured corresponding to a strain of
(A) 0.2%
(B) 0.02%
(C) 0.002%
(D) 2.0%
11. A concrete block 2 m high, 2 m wide and 1 m thick is used for holding mud at one side of the block as shown in the Fig. l. The density of concrete is 2500 kg/m3 while the density of the mud is 1600 kg/m3. Take specific weight of water as 10 kN/m3 . If the coefficient of friction between the ground and the concrete block is 0.16, then the mud height(h) at which the block will start to slide
(A) 1 m
(B) 1.5 m
(C) 2 m
(D) 1.1 m
12. For the cylindrical log of wood freely floating in water as shown in Fig. 2, go through the following statements
I. As the depth of submergence increases the metacentric height decreases
II. As the depth of submergence increases the buoyancy height from centre decreases
III. Irrespective of the depth of submergence the body is in stable equilibrium
IV. Irrespective of the depth of submergence body is always in neutral equilibrium
Choose the correct statement combination out of the above :
(A) I & III
(B) II & III
(C) IV only
(D) I & IV
Question deleted
(A) 3xdx – 4ydy = 0
(B) 4dx – 3dy = 0
(C) 4dx + 3dy = 0
(D) 4ydx + 3xdy = 0
14. On an immersed body in a flowing fluid, the drag force is due to
(A) force of buoyancy
(B) recirculation regions
(C) the dynamic fluid force component in the direction of flow
(D) stagnation pressure points
15. The range of Froude number of a weak hydraulic jump is
(A) 1.0 to 1.7
(B) 1.7 to 2.5
(C) 2.5 to 4.5
(D) 4.5 to 9.0
16. A rainfall of intensity 30 mm/hour is occurring over a catchment area of 2km² . The duration of the rainfall is 3 hours. It was calculated that the total surface runoff reaching the river is 60,000 m3. The total rainfall and total abstractions in this rainfall are
(A) 6 cm, 6 cm
(B) 9 cm, 6 cm
(C) 6 cm, 9 cm
(D) 9 cm, 9 cm
17. The total rainfall for a 3 hour duration storm is 9 cm. The loss rate over the catchment is 2 cm/hour. The peak of the flood hydrograph is
330 m3/s and the base flow calculated was 30 m3/s. The peak of the 3- hour unit hydrograph is
(A) 100 m3/s
(B) 33.333 m3/s
(C) 50 m3/s
(D) 110 m3/s
18. The available moisture content of soil with depth is 20 cm/m. The root zone depth of the crop being cultivated is 1 m. The field is to be irrigated when 50% of the available moisture content in the root zone is depleted. The daily consumptive use of water for the crop is 10 mm. The water application efficiency over the field is 50%. The frequency of irrigation and depth of water for the cultivation are
(A) 5 days, 10 cm
(B) 10 days, 10 cm
(C) 10 days, 20 cm
(D) 8 days, 20 cm
19. The current metre rating curve is given in Fig. 3. The maximum number of revolutions permitted is 20,000 per second. The same current metre is used for the measurement of a stream velocity and it was observed that the total number of revolutions in one minute was 6000. The velocity of the water in the stream is
(A) 5.2 m/s
(B) 0.80 m/s
(C) 1.00 m/s
(D) 1.12 m/s
20. Through Recuperation test it was obtained that the specific yield of soil is 0.01 hr–1. The sides of the open well is fully covered with concrete and the inner diameter of the well is 2 m. If the well works under a safe depression head of 1.4 m, the ratio between safe yield to specific capacity
(A) 44 Litres/hour
(B) 1.4 m
(C) 44 Litres/hour/m
(D) 44 m3/hour/m
21. A theodolite, the telescope of which can be revolved in a vertical plane about its horizontal axis, is known as a
(A) Transit theodolite
(B) Non-transit theodolite
(C) Vernier type theodolite
(D) Glass arc type theodolite
22. A 20 m tape is found to be 0.1 m too short throughout measurement. If the distance measured is recorded as 200 m, what will be the actual distance measured ?
(A) 202 m
(B) 198 m
(C) 199 m
(D) 201 m
23. A total station is a combination of the following set of instruments :
(A) theodolite and compass
(B) electronic theodolite and electronic distance measurement
(C) theodolite and level
(D) global positioning system and electronic distance measurement
24. A staff reading taken on a point of known reduced level is termed as
(A) intermediate sight
(B) fore sight
(C) height of instrument
(D) back sight
25. The standard time meridian in India is 82° 30' E. If the standard time at any instant is 15 hr 10 min, the local mean time for a place with longitude 20° E will be equal to
(A) 4 am
(B) 11 pm
(C) 4 pm
(D) 11 am
I J K L
(A) P S Q R
(B) R Q P S
(C) S R Q P
(D) Q S P R
27. A deposit taken as a guaranty from the bidder while submitting a tender is known as
(A) bank guarantee deposit
(B) security deposit
(C) earnest money deposit
(D) caution deposit
28. Original cost of property after allowing for depreciation is known as
(A) book value
(B) salvage value
(C) obsolescence value
(D) rateable value
29. The weight of steel reinforcement of one cubic metre is equal to
(A) 7850 kN
(B) 7850 kg
(C) 785 tonne
(D) 7850 N
30. A fund that is gradually accumulated by periodic or annual deposit for the replacement of building or structure at the end of its useful life is termed as
(A) rising fund
(B) scrap fund
(C) local fund
(D) sinking fund
31. Deciduous trees fall under the category of
(A) Exogenous trees
(B) Endogenous trees
(C) Conifers trees
(D) Evergreen trees
32. Based on modulus of elasticity, timber used for construction purposes are classified as Group B when
(A) Modulus of elasticity in bending above 12.5 kN/mm²
(B) Modulus of elasticity in bending above 5.6 kN/mm² and below 9.8 kN/mm²
(C) Modulus of elasticity in bending above 9.8 kN/mm² and below 12.5 kN/mm²
(D) Modulus of elasticity in bending below 5.6 kN/mm²
33. As per relevant Bureau of Indian Standard, the soundness of 43 grade Ordinary Portland Cement tested according to Le Chatelier apparatus shall not be more than
(A) 2 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 1%
(D) 0.8%
K L M N
(A) S Q P R
(B) Q P R S
(C) P R Q S
(D) R Q S P
35. A plastic material obtained by oxidizing linseed oil into a rubber like substance mixed with ground cork, wood flour and pigments is known as
(A) Thermocol
(B) Fibre glass
(C) Glass wool
(D) Linoleum
36. A finely ground powder containing an admixture, forms a gas on being mixed with water and expands the mixture to 3 or 4 times, its volume is known as
(A) Stucco
(B) Gypsum
(C) Pyrocell
(D) Keene’s cement
37. Identify the processes used in conditional assessment of existing structures
(i) Visual inspection with or without NDT
(ii) Filed and Laboratory testing
(iii) Data Analysis
(iv) Sealing existing cracks
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
38. Plastic settlement cracks occur in concrete due to
(i) excess bleeding
(ii) rapid cooling
(iii) rapid early drying conditions
(iv) lack of cover
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
39. A special formwork which moves continuously without support from ground used in tall building construction is known as
(A) Myvan form
(B) Tunnel form
(C) Slip form
(D) Shell form
40. A wall that is constructed to carry the load of the structure above it is known as
(A) parapet wall
(B) load bearing wall
(C) cavity wall
(D) in-fill walls
41. Moment due to triangular load of masonry wall above the lintel is taken as
Correct Answer : A
42. As per IS 456 : 2000, the pH value of water used in building construction shall be
(A) greater than 7
(B) equal to 7
(C) less than 10
(D) less than 6
Question deleted
43. The purpose of underpinning is to :
(i) strengthen an existing foundation
(ii) to deepen an existing foundation
(iii) to construct a new foundation
(iv) to construct a basement in an existing building
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
44. The process of scaling away patches of plaster of previous coat, due to lack of adhesion with the undercoat is called
(A) grinning
(B) flaking
(C) blistering
(D) crazing
P Q R S
(A) E F H G
(B) F G E H
(C) G F E H
D) H E F G
46. The short comings of bar charts are :
(i) Lack of degree of details
(ii) Inability of show progress of work
(iii) Time uncertainties
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
47. Safety Week observed every year to celebrate the foundation of the National Safety Council of India is
(A) 4 –10 February
(B) 4 – 10 January
(C) 4 –10 April
(D) 4 – 10 March
48. The amount of time it takes to receive materials from a supplier after the initial order has been placed is known as
(A) replenishment time
(B) lead time
(C) cycle time
(D) idle time
49. The practice among those with power or influence of favouring relatives or friends is known as
(A) feudalism
(B) nepotism
(C) centralism
(D) authorism
50. The process of comparing any measured value with its true value is known as
(A) least count
(B) accuracy
(C) precision
(D) calibration
51. The distribution mains are designed for
(A) Maximum daily demand
(B) Maximum hourly demand
(C) Average daily demand
(D) Maximum hourly demand on maximum day
52. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be
(A) Nil
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 15
53. The maximum permissible limit for fluoride in drinking water is
(A) 0.1 mg/litre
(B) 1.5 mg/litre
(C) 5 mg/litre
(D) 10 mg/litre
54. What is the working pH range for methyl orange ?
(A) 6.4 – 8.0
(B) 1.2 – 2.8
(C) 3.1 – 4.4
(D) 6.0 – 7.8
55. Which of the following are least soluble forms of Ca and Mg at Normal water temperature ?
Correct Answer : D
56. A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water sample is
(A) 10-9.25 moles/L
(B) 10-4.75 moles/L
(C) 0.302 mg/L
(D) 3.020 mg/L
Question deleted
57. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
(A) Pre-chlorination
(B) Post-chlorination
(C) Super chlorination
(D) Break point chlorination
58. Match the given water properties in Group-I to the given titrants shown in Group-II
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
59. Which of the following cations impart(s) pseudo-hardness to water ?
(A) Calcium only
(B) Magnesium only
(C) Calcium and magnesium
(D) Sodium
60. A single rapid test to determine the pollution status of river water is
(A) Biochemical oxygen demand
(B) Chemical oxygen demand
(C) Total organic solids
(D) Dissolved oxygen
61. As per IS 1893 : 2002 “A soft storey is one in which the lateral stiffness is less than what % of that in the storey above or less than 80 percent of the average lateral stiffness of the three storeys above.
(A) 70 percent
(B) 80 percent
(C) 75 percent
(D) 90 percent
62. As per IS 13920 : 2016, what is the minimum grade of structural concrete that should be used in buildings ?
(A) 30
(B) 25
(C) 15
(D) 20
63. Modulus of rigidity of structural steel irrespective of its grade may be taken as:
Correct Answer : C
64. Minimum grade of concrete that has to be used for post tensioned concrete structures
(A) M20
(B) M30
(C) M25
(D) M40
65. Which of the following is not a time dependent loss in pre-stressed concrete system ?
(A) Creep
(B) Relaxation
(C) Shrinkage
(D) Elastic shortening
66. The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on
(A) Permeability of Roof
(B) Slope of roof
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
67. Angle of inclination to axis of member for lacing bars shall not be less than
(A) 30°
(B) 40°
(C) 60°
(D) 70°
68. Lacing and Battens are designed to take care of
(A) Bending moment
(B) Compression
(C) Bearing
(D) Shear force
69. Maximum effective slenderness ratio for compression flanges of beam subjected to lateral torsional buckling is
(A) 180
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 350
70. In beams designed for seismic detailing criteria, the tension steel ratio on any face shall not be less than
Correct Answer : A
71. Consider the singly reinforced beam shown in the figure below : At cross-section XX, which of the following statement is TRUE at the Limit State ?
(A) The variation of stress is linear and that of strain is non-linear
(B) The variation of strain is linear and that of stress is non-linear
(C) The variation of both stress and strain is linear
(D) The variation of both stress and strain is non-linear
(A) 6.4
(B) 4.8
(C) 5.2
(D) 5.6
73. Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timber without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
74. When a spirally reinforced short column is loaded axially, the concrete inside the core is subjected to
(A) Bending and compression
(B) Biaxial compression
(C) Triaxial compression
(D) Uniaxial compression
75. The spacing of bars in a flat slab, shall not exceed how many times, the slab thickness, except where a slab is cellular or ribbed construction
(A) 2
(B) 1.5
(C) 0.5
(D) 3
76. The unsupported length between end restraints shall not exceed how many times the least lateral dimension of a column ?
(A) 10 times
(B) 20 times
(C) 40 times
(D) 60 times
77. As per IS 875 (Part-3) : 2015, value of internal pressure co-efficient for Buildings with medium openings between about 5 to 20 percent of wall area is
(A) ± 0.2
(B) ± 0.3
(C) ± 0.5
(D) ± 0.7
78. Two bolted plates under tension with alternative arrangement of bolt holes are shown in figure 1 and 2. The hole diameter, pitch, and gauge length are d, p and g respectively.
Which one of the following conditions must be ensured to have higher net tensile
capacity of configuration shown in figure 2 than that shown in figure 1 ?
(A) p² > 2gd
(B) p² < √4gd
(C) p² > 4gd
(D) p² < 4gd
79. If a column of 5 m is effectively held in position and restrained against rotation at one end and, at the other restrained against rotation but not held in position, recommended value of effective length to considered in design will be:
(A) 6 m
(B) 7.5 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 3.25 m
80. Which of the following equation is correct for bolt subjected to combined shear and tension ?
Correct Answer : A
81. Typical values of specific gravity of solid particles of silty sands are about
(A) < 2.0
(B) 2.0 to 2.18
(C) 2.2 to 2.62
(D) 2.66 to 2.7
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 42
(D) 67
83. Consistency index shows the nearness of the water content of the soil to its
(A) Natural water content
(B) Liquid limit
(C) Plastic limit
(D) Shrinkage limit
84. Co-efficient of permeability of an unsaturated soil can be determined by using
(A) Variable head permeability test
(B) Pumping in tests
(C) Computation from the particle size
(D) Capillarity permeability test
85. The critical gradient at which the specific gravity of solids as 2.67, and the void ratio of 0.67 is
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2
(D) 2.5
86. Primary consolidation of soils occurs due to
(A) Expulsion of air voids
(B) Expulsion of water from the voids
(C) Compression of solid particles
(D) Re-adjustment of soil particles
87. Type of failure occur in loose sands during shearing stage of shear strength test is
(A) Plastic
(B) Brittle
(C) Compression
(D) Shear
88. Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load.
(B) Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil.
(C) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing.
(D) Bearing capacity of a soil is independent of rate of loading.
Question deleted
89. The minimum spacing between compaction piles in terms of their diameter d is
(A) 1.5 d
(B) 2 d
(C) 2.5 d
(D) 1 d
90. Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity approximately by
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 90%
91. The distance between two consecutive vehicles is called
(A) Time headway
(B) Traffic flow
(C) Jam density
(D) Space headway
92. The number of vehicles per unit length at any instant of time is called as
(A) Density
(B) Capacity
(C) Volume
(D) Saturation flow
93. The minimum space headway in a traffic stream is equal to
Correct Answer : A
94. If the spot speeds are 50, 40, 60, 54 and 45 kmph then the time mean speed is
(A) 49.8 kmph
(B) 46.8 kmph
(C) 48.9 kmph
(D) 48.6 kmph
95. The speed distribution of vehicles at a point on the roadway is
(A) Spot speed
(B) Journey speed
(C) Space mean speed
(D) Time mean speed
96. The vertical alignment of a highway includes
(A) Sight distance and traffic intersection
(B) Highway lightning
(C) Design of valley curves and gradients
(D) Widening of pavement
97. The ruling gradient required for plain or rolling terrain is
(A) 1 in 15
(B) 1 in 20
(C) 1 in 30
(D) 1 in 40
98. Bleeding in the bituminous pavement surface causes
(A) Loss of skid resistance
(B) Permeability of subgrade
(C) Pothole in base layer
(D) Water pumping
99. The surface depression along the wheel path is called as
(A) Longitudinal cracking
(B) Surface rutting
(C) Surface cracking
(D) Longitudinal gradient
100. In the rigid pavement construction, the dowel bars provided to
(A) distribute loads between slabs in horizontal direction
(B) keep the slabs in longitudinal position
(C) strengthen the slabs from longitudinal movement
(D) to avoid the vertical movement of slabs
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