Chemist Question Paper and Answer Key

 Question Code: 043/2022 (A)
Name of Post: Chemist
Department: Kerala State Co-operative Marketing Federation Ltd 
Cat. No: 305/2021
Date of Test: 24.04.2022

1. Which among the following formation is not an example of Covalent bond?
(A) LiF
(B) NH 3
(C) CF4
(D) HF 4

2. The wave length of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to :
 (A) Number of electrons undergoing transition
 (B) The nuclear charge of the atoms
 (C) The difference in the energy levels involved in the transition
 (D) The velocity of an electron undergoing transition

3. Which of the following quantum number has not been derived from Schrodinger wave equations?
(A) Principal quantum number
(B) Subsidiary quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number
(D) Spin quantum number

4. Increasing order of electronegativity is :
(A) Bi < P < S < Cl
(B) P < Bi < S < Cl
(C) C > F > N > O
(D) F > O > N > C

5. Examples of super octet molecule is :
(A) PCl5
(B) SF6
(C) IF7
(D) All of these

 

6. When P is dissolved in water, the acid formed finally is : 4O10
(A) H3PO2  
(B) H 3PO4
(C) H3PO3   
(D) H 4P2O7
 

7. XeF2 reacts with PF5 to give :

 

 Correct Answer : B

8. The Vander Waals equation (P = a/V2) (V-b) = RT, where P is pressure, V is the specific
volume, T is the temperature and R is the gas constant. The SI unit of ‘a’ is :
(A) J/Kg.K
(B) m3/Kg
(C) m5/KgS2
D) Pa/Kg

9. Which of the following can not exist on the basis of Molecular orbital theory?


10. Cesium chloride on heating to 760K changes into :
(A) NaCl structure
(B) CsCl(g)
(C) Antifluorite structure
(D) ZnS structure

11. Effective Atomic Number (EAN) of Fe in − Fe(CO) is : 4
(A) 34
(B) 35
(C) 36
(D) 37

12. Hybridization of Fe in K3[Fe(CN6)] and K4[Fe(CN6)] :
(A) d2sp3 and sp3d2
(B) sp3d2 and sp3d2
(C) d2sp3 and d2sp3
(D) sp3d2 and d2sp3

13. Which of the following metal has lowest melting point?
(A) Antimony
(B) Silver
(C) Tin
(D) Zinc

14. The element with maximum cosmic abundance :
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Helium
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen

15. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is present in :
(A) Benzene and ethanol
(B) Acetonitrile and acetone
(C) KCl and water
(D) Benzene and carbon tetrachloride





17. What is the role of ultra violet radiation in water purification system?
1. It inactivates / kill the harmful microorganisms in water
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water
3. It quickens the sedimentations of solid particles and improves the clarity of water,
which of the statements given above is/are corrected
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

18. The pH of water at 250 is 7, when it is heated to 100ºC, the pH of water :
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) Decreases up to 50ºC and then increases

19. Which of the following copper alloys is used for the manufacture of springs and suspension of
springs and suspension filaments in electrical instruments?
(A) Bronze
(B) Aluminum bronze
(C) German silver
(D) Phosphor bronze

20. Which of the following is/are the hazardous pollutant(s) present in automobiles exhaust
gases?
 1. N 2
2. CO
3. CH 4
4. Oxides of nitrogen
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

21. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Aluminum – Haematite
(B) Lead – Galena
(C) Iron – Bauxite
(D) Magnesium – Malachite

22. In cold water, aquatic animals survive even when water to the top layer of the lake freezes into ice because :
(A) They can breathe in ice
(B) They have enough of accumulated oxygen inside them
(C) Their body structure is such that they can survive without oxygen
(D) Water has structure density of 4ºC so underneath the top layer of there is layer of water

23. Ferrocene cannot undergo which of the following reaction?
(A) Friedal craft acylation
(B) Diels-Alder reaction
(C) Oxidation by Ag+ ions
(D) Electrophilic substitution

24. According to wade’s Rule, [C2B10H12 ]  adopts which type of structure?
(A) closo structure
(B) nido structure
(C) archano structure
(D) hypo structure

25. Which of these can be used as moth repellent?
(A) Benzene hexachloride
(B) Benzal chloride
(C) Hexachloroethane
(D) Tetrachloroethane

26. What is the major organic product obtained from the following reaction?

Correct Answer : B



27. Which of the following statement is incorrect about nucleophiles?
(A) Nucleophiles have an unshared electron pair and can make use of this to react with an electron deficient species
(B) The nucleophilicity of an element (an electron donor) generally increases on going down a group in the periodic table
(C) A nucleophile is electron-deficient species
(D) All good nucleophiles are good bases when we deal across the period

28. A layer of reddish-brown precipitate which is formed on the iron knife, when an iron knife is dipped in an aqueous solution of copper sulphate is of which compound or element?
(A) Iron sulphate
(B) Copper
(C) Rust
(D) Copper sulphate

29. Who proposed arrow pushing method of showing progression of elections?
(A) Robert Burns Woodward
(B) Adolf Von Baeyer
(C) Victor Grignard
(D) Sir Robert Robinson

30. What is obtained by thermolysis of azides?
(A) Free radicals
(B) Carbocation
(C) Nitrene
(D) Arene

31. Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as
(A) Acute toxicity
(B) Chronic toxicity
(C) Moderate toxicity
(D) High toxicity


32. LD50 in a toxicity test stands for
(A) a dose that will kill 50% of an exposed population
(B) a dose that would not affect or harm 50% of an exposed population
(C) a dose that will kill 25% of an exposed population
(D) a dose that would not kill 25% of an exposed population

33. Which of the following is not soluble in NaHCO3?
(A) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol
(B) Benzoic acid
(C) o-Nitrophenol
(D) Benzene sulphonic acid

34. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is :
(A) Carboxylic acid
(B) Aromatic acid
(C) Ketone
(D) Schiff’s base

 

35. Which of the following is most reactive towards SN1 reaction?

Correct Answer : A


36. A dihalogen derivative ‘X’ of a hydrocarbon with three carbon atoms react with ale. KOH and produces hydrocarbon which forms red ppt. with ammoniacal Cu2Cl2. ‘X’ gives an aldehyde on reaction with aq. KOH. The compound ‘X’ is
(A) 1, 3-Dichloropropane
(B) 1, 2-Dichloropropane
(C) 2, 2-Dichloropropane
(D) 1, 1-Dichloropropane

37. The synthesis of alkyl fluoride is best accomplished by :
(A) Finkelstein reaction
(B) Swartz reaction
(C) Free radical fluorination
(D) Sandmeyer’s reaction

38. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by  OH” ion?
 1 -Bromoethane, 1-Bromopropane, 1-Bromobutane, Bromobenzene
(A) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromoethane
(B) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane
(C) 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane < 1-Bromoethane < Bromobenzene
(D) 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane < Bromobenzene

39. Which of the following has ester linkages?
(A) Nylon
(B) Bakelite
(C) Terylene
(D) PVC

40. Zeigler-Natta catalyst is used in making :
(A) Low density polyethylene
(B) High density polyethylene
(C) Polystyrene
(D) PMMA

41. What will be the fraction of molecules having energy equal to or greater than activation energy, Ea?

Correct Answer : D

 42. What is the geometry of pentacarbonyl iron (0)?
(A) Square planar
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal
(D) Octahedral

43. Which of the following will give effective reduction of 3-hexyne to trans-3-hexene?
(A) H2/Lindlar’s catalyst
(B) Na/liq. NH3
(C) Fe/NaCl
(D) DIBAL

44. An organic compound (MF; C8H10O) exhibited the following 1H NMR special data:
62.5 (3H, s), 3.8 (314, s), 6.8 (2H, d, J 8 Hz), 7.2 (2H, d, J 8 Hz) ppm. What will be the compound among the choices?
(A) 4-methylbenzyl alcohol
(B) 4-methyl anisole
(C) 4-ethylphenol
(D) 2-ethylphenol

45. Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given macromolecules?
(A) Vitamins
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) Lipids
(D) Protein

46. Who discovered the mass spectrometer?
(A) Walter Kaufmann
(B) Ernest O. Lawrence
(C) Francis Aston
(D) J.J. Thomson

47. Which of the following is a product formed in Claisen condensation?
(A) β -ester
(B) β -ketone
(C) β -keto ester
(D) Y-diketone

48. Which of the following will form alkyl bromide on reaction with Br2 ?
(A) Alcohols
(B) Alkenes
(C) Silver salt of fatty acids
(D) All of these


49. Reaction of chlorobenzene with 2 NH3 NaNH forms : /
(A) Carbene
(B) Carbocation
(C) Carbanion
(D) Benzyne

50. Bischler-Napieralski synthesis is used to prepare :
(A) Pyridine
(B) Pyrazine
(C) Isoquinoline
(D) Quinoline
 

51. Which of the following is a hetrocyclic compound not having 2 nitrogen atoms in the same ring?
(A) Isoxazole
(B) Pyrimidine
(C) Pyrazine
(D) Pyridazine

52. Chlorination of toluene with excess Cl2 in presence of heat followed by hydrolysis gives :
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Benzoic acid
(C) o-Cresol
(D) p-Cresol

53. Alkyl halide may be converted to alkane by reduction with :
(A) Zn/Cu/HCl
(B) /Pt H2
(C) 2 3 NaNH
(D) All of these /NH

54. LiAlH converts acetic acid into :
(A) Acetaldehyde
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethanol
(D) Methanol

55. A pure organic compound dissolved in dry benzene evolves hydrogen on reaction with sodium. It may be :
(A) Ether
(B) Alcohol
(C) Aldehyde
(D) Ketone

56. To obtain 1-Propanol from propene, the reagent of choice is :


Correct Answer : D

57. Ethanol may be distinguished from methanol by :
(A) Benedict’s test
(B) Tollen’s test
(C) Iodoform test
(D) Lucas test

58. Oxymercuration of alkenes may be used to prepare :
(A) Alkanes
(B) Alkynes
(C) Alkanoic acid
(D) Alcohols

59. The reaction, which is used to convert phenol to salicylic acid is :
(A) Kolbe-Schmidt reaction
(B) Phthalein reaction
(C) Leibermann reaction
(D) Cannizzaro reaction

60. Reformatsky reaction is the reaction between a carbonyl compound, zinc and :
(A) Unsaturated acid
(B) Unsaturated ester
(C) α -Halo ester
(D) β -Halo ester

61. The reagent which is capable of reacting both with aldehyde as well as ketone :
(A) Schiff’s reagent
(B) Grignard reagent
(C) Tollen’s reagent
(D) Fehling’s solution

62. Benzoin condensation takes place between :
 (A) Aromatic aldehyde and aromatic ketone
 (B) Aromatic aldehyde and aliphatic ketone
 (C) Aromatic aldehyde and aliphatic aldehyde
 (D) Aromatic aldehyde only

63. Which of the following method is specific for the preparation of aromatic aldehydes?
(A) Stephen’s reaction
(B) Etard’s reaction
(C) Rosenmund reduction
(D) Hydrolysis of gem dihalides

64. Perbenzoic acid reacts with alkenes to form :
(A) Epoxides
(B) Ethers
(C) Glycols
(D) Alcohols

65. Hell Volhard Zelenski reaction is used to prepare :
(A) Acid halides
(B) Nuclear halogen acid halides
(C) Nuclear halogen acids
(D) Side chain halogen acids


Correct Answer : A

67. Four 1 litre flasks are separately filled with the gases 2 2 CH4 O and ,F , CO , under the same 2conditions of temperature and pressure. The ratio of their number of moles will be :
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(B) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(C) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(D) 2 : 2 : 4 : 3

68. Most probable velocity, average velocity and RMS velocity are related as :
(A) 1 : 1.28 : 1.224
(B) 1 : 1.28 : 1.424
(C) 1 : 1.128 : 1.224
(D) 1 : 1.428 : 1.441

69. The rate of diffusion of 3 2 PCl3 SO and ,CO , SO are in the following order : 2
(A) PCl3 > SO3 > SO2 > CO2
(B) SO2 > SO3 > PCl3 > CO2
(C) CO2 > SO2 > PCl3 > SO3
(D) CO2 > SO2 > SO3 > PCl3

70. The ratio of the total volume of bcc to simple cubic structure is :


Correct Answer : A

71. A gas at temperature 250 K and pressure 15 atm, has a molar volume 12% smaller than that calculated from ideal gas equation, then compressibility factor under these condition is :
(A) 12
(B) 88
(C) 0.12
(D) 0.88

72. Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution of urea, it is boils at 373.1 K  Kf = 1.8 K Kg/mol, K Kb = 0.5 Kg/mol :
(A) 273 K
(B) 373 K
(C) 272.64 K
(D) 276.24 K

73. Assuming ideal behaviour, calculate the mass of a non-volatile liquid, whose molecular
mass = 120, which would be dissolved in 200 g of octane, by 2% lowering of vapour pressure :
(A) 4.12 gm
(B) 4.21 gm
(C) 2.41 gm
(D) 2.14 gm

74. Ksp of a salt, with general formula MX , in water is 4 2 × 10–12. Calculate the concentration of M ions in the saturated aqueous solution of the salt : 2+
(A) 4 × 10–12 mol/L
(B) 1 × 10–12 mol/L
(C) 4 × 10–4 mol/L
(D) 1 × 10–4 mol/L

75. Which of the following change the value of K?
(A) adding reactant
(B) adding product
(C) changing temperature
(D) adding catalyst

76. A system with zero-degree of freedom is known as :
(A) Monovarient
(B) Bivarient
(C) Invarient
(D) None of these

77. A catalyst will increase the rate of a chemical reaction by :
(A) shifting the equilibrium to the right
(B) shifting the equilibrium to the left
(C) increasing the activation energy
(D) lowering the activation energy

78. The units of erg, Joule and Calorie are interconvertible, which of the following is incorrect :
(A)IMAGE
(B) 4.184 J = 1 Cal
(C) 1 Joule = 0.2390 Cal
(D) 1 erg = 4.184 Cal

79. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from 1 litre volume to 10 litre volume. ΔE for the process is ——————.
 (R = 2 Cal K–1 mol–1) :
(A) 300 cal
(B) 600 cal
(C) 1200 cal
(D) 0 cal




(A) Gibb’s Helmholtz equation
(B) Clapeyron equation
(C) Kirchoff’s equation
(D) None of these

81. A process is in the equilibrium state when :
(A) ΔG = 0
(B) 0 ΔG >
(C) 0 ΔG <
(D) None of these

82. The efficiency of a heat engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is :
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.25

83. In a process KJ ΔH = 100 and J/K ΔS = 100 at 400 K. The value of GΔ will be :
(A) 0
(B) 100 KJ
(C) 60 KJ
(D) 50 KJ

84. The half life for a first order reaction is 2768 years. If the concentration after 11072 years is 0.0216 M, what was the initial concentration?
(A) 0.0690 M
(B) 0.345 M
(C) 0.173 M
(D) 1.000 M

85. For a certain reaction, a plot of ln versus t gives a straight line with a slope of –1.46 s [ ] A –1.Then the order of the reaction in A is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

86. For a reaction B A → , the activation energy is 125 Ea = KJ/mol and the heat of reaction, ΔH = 50 KJ/mol. What is the E for the reverse reaction in KJ/mol? a
(A) 75 KJ/mol
(B) –75 KJ/mol
(C) 125 KJ/mol
(D) 175 KJ/mol

87. The heat of adsorption in physical adsorption lies in the range :
(A) 1 – 10 KJ/mol
(B) 10 – 400 KJ/mol
(C) 40 – 100 KJ/mol
(D) 40 – 400 KJ/mol

88. 0.5 Normal solution of a salt placed between two platinum electrodes, 20 cm apart and ofarea of cross-section 4.0 sq.cm has a resistance of 25 ohms. Calculate the equivalent conductance of the solution :
(A) 200 ohm–1 cm2 eqvt–1
(B) 250 ohm–1 cm2 eqvt–1
(C) 400 ohm–1 cm2 eqvt–1
(D) 500 ohm–1 cm2 eqvt–1

89. 30% of 2nd order reaction is completed in 15 minutes. Calculate the time for 60% completion :
(A) 60 minutes
(B) 52.5 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 32.5 minutes

90. A certain current liberated 1.008 g of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be deposited by the same current flowing for the same time in CuSO solution (atomic mass of Cu = 63.5) :
(A) 31.75 g
(B) 63.5 g
(C) 127.0 g
(D) 15.875 g

91. The specific conductance of a 0.01 M solution of KCl is 1.4 × 10–3 ohm–1 cm–1 at 298 K. Its molar conductance is :
(A) 0.14 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(B) 1.4 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(C) 14.0 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(D) 140 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1

92. The equivalent conductance at 18ºC of a normal solution of KCl is 98.2 and for infinite dilution at the same temperature is 131. Calculate the degree of dissociation of KCl at this dilution :

(A) 0.1
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.75
 

93. pH of an aqueous solution of weak acid and strong base is given by the relation :
 

Correct Answer : A
 

 94. The heat of neutralisation of all strong acid and strong base is:
(A) equal to zero
(B) nearly the same
(C) not fixed
(D) varies from acid to acid

 

95. Which among the following is not microwave active?
(A) HCl
(B) H 2
(C) HBr
(D) CO
 

96. The NMR active molecule is :

 

 Correct Answer : B

 

97. The magnetic moment of a molecule is 1.732 magnetons. The number of unpaired electrons is :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
 

98. → ∗ n σ transition occurs in :
(A) alkanes
(B) alkenes
(C) halogen compounds
(D) carbonyl compounds
 

99. Specific selection rule for rotational spectrum is :
(A) 1 Δ V = ± 1
(B) Δ J = ±1
(C)  Δ V = ±1, ± 2
(D)  Δ J = ±1,±2

 

100. The formula used for the determination of relative viscosity by Ostwald’s method is :




Correct Answer : A

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