Name of Post: Receptionist
Department: Medical Education Services
Cat. Number: 003/2019
Date of Test: 27.01.2022
Question Code: 006/22
1. Direct social work practice is related to all the following except
A) Case work
B) Case Management
C) Individual Psychotherapy
D) Policy Practice
2. Competent practise in generalist practice in Social Work includes
a. Screening of methods, theories and their evidence for cultural relevance.
b. Selective use of one or more methods and theories in the same case.
A) Both a and b are correct, b is the explanation of a
B) Both a and b are correct, b is a subsequent step of a
C) Both a and b are necessary but not related
D) Both a and b are not true for generalist practice
3. Evidence-based Practice in Social Work
a. It requires an appraisal of the levels of evidence according to the rigour of the research designs.
b. It relies on statistical evidence to determine what works and which intervention is better than another.
A) Both a and b are criteria for evidence based practice
B) Only a is a criterion for evidence based practice
C) Only b is a criterion for evidence based practice
D) Both are not criteria for evidence based practice
4. Strength-based practice
a. Focus on resiliency over vulnerability.
b. Goals not deficits drive treatment.
c. Assessment is bypassed in favour of a goal-directed treatment plan.
A) All statements are true
B) a and b are true
C) a and c are true
D) b and c are true
5. Client’s right to be appraised of the effectiveness of proposed treatment options is referred to
A) Privileged Communication
B) Informed consent
C) Self determination
D) None of these
6. Which of the following is not an example of indirect practice ?
A) Administration and supervision of agency programmes
B) Face to face delivery of concrete services
C) Social Policy analysis
D) Advocacy
7. Group work as a method of social work was established by
A) Giesela Konopka
B) Mary Richmond
C) Grace Koyle
D) Charlottee Towle
8. The implicit and explicit group communications and interactive patterns are captured using a
A) Ecogram
B) Ecomap
C) Genogram
D) Sociogram
9. The core principles of Social Case Work by Biestek does not include
A) Confidentiality
B) Privileged Communication
C) Self Determination
D) Controlled emotional involvement
10. Consider the statements in relation to Group Work.
a. The worker is expected to form purposeful relationship to group members and the group.
b. ‘Conscious use of self’ is vital in group work process.
A) Both a and b are correct, b is the prerequisite of a
B) Both a and b are correct, b is a subsequent step of a
C) Both a and b are necessary but not related
D) Both a and b are not true for group work practice
11. All the following are true about The Constitution of India except
A) Adopted by the Parliament on 26 November, 1949 and became effective on 26 January, 1950.
B) It replaced the Govt. of India Act of 1935
C) It imparts constitutional supremacy and rules out parliamentary supremacy and parliament cannot override the same
D) The document lays down the framework that demarcates the fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers and duties of government institutions
12. When we distinguish law and morality
a. The object of law is the submission of the individual to the will of organised society while the tendency of morality is to subject the individual to the dictates of his/her own consciences.
b. Morality furnishes the criterion for the proper evaluation of our interests; law marks out the limits within which they ought to be confined.
A) Only a is true
B) Only b is true
C) Both a and b are true
D) Both a and b are wrong
13. All the fundamental Rights are guaranteed to every citizen of the country is made possible through the
A) Right Against Exploitation
B) Right to Freedom
C) Right to Equality
D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
14. Consider the following statements with regard to Right to Health in India.
a. Article 21 derives from the directive principles of state policy and includes protection of health.
b. The fifteenth Finance Commission recommended that India must have a Fundamental Right to health and the Right to Health must be declared a Fundamental Right on the 75th Independence Day in 2022.
A) Only a is true
B) Only b is true
C) Both a and b are true
D) Both a and b are wrong
15. The following statements are true with regard to The Mental Health Care Act, 2017 except
A) It repealed the Mental Health Act, 1987.
B) Prohibits any kind of physical restraint for the mentally ill person for preventing harm to others.
C) Prohibits electro-convulsive therapy without the use of muscle relaxants and anaesthesia.
D) Presumption of severe stress in the in case of attempt to commit suicide and deny trial under the IPC Section 309.
16. Supreme Court in Indian is established based on the
A) Article 176
B) Article 152
C) Article 134
D) Article 124
17. Which of the following is not correct about the right to private defence ?
A) Section 96 of IPC
B) Based on the natural instinct of self-preservation
C) Subject to restriction contained in Section 99 of IPC
D) All are correct
18. First information report can be lodged by Officer in charge of Police Station at the information of_______
A) Any person
B) Police personnel
C) ALawyer
D) None of the above
19. Section 50 of the CrPc is related to
A) Person arrested to be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail
B) Right to touch or confine the body of the person to be arrested
C) No women shall be arrested after sunset and without the presence of female police personnel
D) None of these
20. Provision of free legal aid include all the below except
A) Representation by an Advocate in legal proceedings
B) Drafting of legal documents, special leave petition etc.
C) Payment of process fees, expenses of witnesses and all other charges payable or incurred in connection with any legal proceedings in appropriate cases
D) All are correct
21. A shirt worn by a person with chickenpox is likely to be contaminated with the virus that causes chickenpox. The shirt is a
A) Fomite
B) Host
C) Pathogen
D) Vector
22. The disease agent has not yet entered man, but the factors which favor it’s interaction with the human host are already existing in environment.
A) Prepathogenesis phase
B) Pathogenesis phase
C) Post pathogenesis
D) Prevention
23. _________ refers to the proportion of persons with clinical disease who become severely ill or die.
A) Infectivity
B) Pathogenicity
C) Virulence
D) None of these
24. Which of the following statements are true about Protein energy malnutrition is
a. Can occur even when food is readily available.
b. Occurs more frequently in children than in adults.
c. Includes both marasmus and kwashiorkor.
A) Only a is correct
B) Only b is correct
C) b and c are correct
D) All the statements are true
25. A substance, living or non-living, or a force, tangible or intangible the excessive presence or relative lack of which may initiate or perpetuate a disease process.
A) Agent
B) Host
C) Environment
D) Pathogen
26. Which of the following is a chronic mood disturbance that can cause depressive symptoms, but does not disrupt normal functioning ?
A) Cyclothymia
B) Recurrent Depressive Disorder
C) Dysthymia
D) Dissociative Disorder
27. In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised speech and grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as
A) Negative Symptoms
B) Positive Symptoms
C) Meditating Symptoms
D) None of these
28. Which of the following is not a symptom of Anorexia Nervosa ?
A) A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight
B) A pathological fear of gaining weight
C) Adistorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist they are overweight
D) All these are symptoms of Anorexia Nervosa
29. Which of the following are not correct with regard to primary health care in India ?
A) APHC covers a population of 30000
B) A sub center in hilly area caters to all population of 3000
C) Shrivastava Committee recommended for the Three-Tier System of Health care delivery in rural areas
D) All are correct
30. Which of the following is not a mandate of National Program for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke (NPCDCS) ?
A) Provide early diagnosis and management of common NCDs
B) Establish and develop capacity for palliative and rehabilitative care
C) Prevent and control common NCDs through behaviour and life style changes
D) All are correct
31. The NASW occupational profile of social workers in health care involves all the following except
A) Initial screening and evaluation of patient and families
B) Comprehensive psychosocial assessment of patients
C) Helping patients and families understand the illness and treatment options, as well as consequences of various treatments or treatment refusal
D) Helping families in registration, admission, taking their documents towards, receiving them in the reception
32. Which health committee recommended appointment of medical social workers in hospitals in India ?
A) Shrivastava Committee
B) Mudaliar Committee
C) Bhore Committee
D) Karthar Singh Committee
33. The first hospital social worker in the UK known as the hospital almoners was appointed in the
A) Royal Free Hospital, London
B) Royal Edinburg Hospital, London
C) Lady Irwin Hospital, London
D) None of these
34. The primary functions envisaged by Richard Cabot while hiring Garnet Pelton as hospital social worker were
A) To critique while helping to socialize medicine
B) The act as a translator between physician and patient and family
C) To provide information on social and mental factors
D) All of these
35. A whole person care approach in health care involves all the following except
A) Physical and medical condition of the client
B) Emotional or psychological state
C) Socio-political status
D) All of these
36. Effective social work in health care involves
a. Coordinate fragmented services from multiple disciplines
b. Monitor and expedite service delivery
c. Locate and broker services
A) a,b and c are true
B) Only ais true
C) a and b are true
D) aand c are true
37. The desired outcomes of case management consist of all of the following except
A) Cure of a primary condition
B) Empowerment
C) Environmental accommodations
D) Skill training and acquisition
38. Token economy is based on
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Social learning
D) Humanistic therapy
39. Community based rehabilitation does not include
A) Access to healthcare
B) Skills training
C) Political empowerment
D) All are correct
40. Consider the following statements regarding Multidisciplinary team work in healthcare.
a. MDT helps in reducing the number of medical errors and increases the level of patient safety.
b. Diminish the work-culture issues that lead to professional burnout.
c. Improved patient-centred care for the long-term
A) Only a is true
B) a and b are true
C) a and c are true
D) a,b and c are true
41. The team competencies of a multidisciplinary team include
A) maximizing collective intelligence
B) inclusive collaboration
C) open communication
D) all of these
42. A client who is aware of the issue, but is not fully aware of the options, benefits for changing and consequences for not changing is in which stage of motivation cycle
A) Pre-contemplation
B) Contemplation
C) Action
D) Maintenance
43. A social worker actively involved screening of cancer and referral for care is involved in
A) Primary Prevention
B) Secondary Prevention
C) Tertiary Prevention
D) Rehabilitation
44. Triage is
A) Treating the mentally ill persons
B) ‘First come first served’
C) Treating the most serious first
D) Treating patients with better prognosis as priority
45. Patients are most likely to comply with the medical advice if
A) The illness has serious symptoms
B) The doctor is elderly
C) The illness is chronic
D) The medical team has taken time to provide informational care to the patient
46. Which of the following is the correct order for the four major steps in designing a health education lesson plan ?
I . Developing instructional objectives and evaluation measures that are congruent.
Il. Identifying several teaching strategies that encourage teacher modelling and student participation.
Ill. Setting scope and sequence boundaries for the topic.
IV. Determining the general focus for the lesson plan
A) I, IV, III, II
B) II, I, III, IV
C) III, I, IV, II
D) IV, III, I, II
47. The sick role assumed and adopted by persons often form part of the illness presentation and aggravate the following mental health condition
A) Psychosomatic disorders
B) Somatoform disorders
C) Panic Attacks
D) All of these
48. A reaction to loss, or anticipated loss is what term is assigned to the emotional response associated with loss ?
A) Sadness
B) Grief
C) Trauma
D) None of these
49. What term is applied to the loss of a loved one through death ?
A) Grief
B) Mourning
C) Bereavement
D) Trauma
50. What is the fourth stage of the Kiibler-Ross model of loss ?
A) Bargaining
B) Depression
C) Denial
D) Anger
51. Informed consent includes all the following except
A) Agreement
B) Voluntary
C) Debates
D) Understanding
52. Ayushman Bharat-National Health Protection Mission
A) Integrates Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS)
B) Integrates Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (AABY) and Awaz Health Insurance Scheme
C) Chief Minister’s Comprehensive Insurance Scheme and Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS)
D) Integrates all these schemes
53. Arogya Sanjeevani Insurance Policy is
A) announced under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package
B) guarantees free and cashless services up to Rs. 5 lakh in a year for secondary and tertiary care
C) launched to cover the hospitalisation expenses of the Covid-19 patients
D) none of these
54. Electronic Health Records (EHR)
A) Is acollection of various medical records that get generated during any clinical encounter or events
B) Promote interoperability and where necessary be specific about certain content exchange and vocabulary standards to establish a path forward toward semantic interoperability
C) Promote technical innovation using adopted standards
D) All of these
55. Occasions when two or more professions learn with, from and about each other to improve collaboration and the quality of care
A) Collaborative education
B) Interprofessional education
C) Collaborative learning
D) None of these
56. Which of these should be kept in mind while giving instructions ?
A) The pitch of the receiver
B) The tone of the receiver
C) His/her ability to grasp information
D) The physical condition of the receiver
57. Which of the following is a general term used to refer to the application of digital information and communication technology to health care ?
A) digi-health
B) e-health
C) i-health
D) tech-health
58. An example of communicable disease
A) cardiovascular diseases
B) cancer
C) chronic respiratory diseases
D) tuberculosis
59. Who proposed the biopsychosocial model ?
A) Freud
B) Sontag
C) Engel
D) None of these
60. According to the health belief model, the extent to which a person adheres to medication advice depends upon
A) perceived disease severity
B) susceptibility to the disease
C) benefits of the recommended treatment
D) all of these
61. The Latin word ‘infans’ meaning is
A) Unable to walk
B) Unable to speak
C) Baby reflex
D) None of these
62. Infant mortality rate means the number of deaths of children
A) Under the age of six months per 1000 live births
B) Under the age of one year per 100 live births
C) Under the age of one year per 1000 live births
D) Under the age of six months per 100 live births
63. Please select the correct order to periods of prenatal development
A) Germinal — Embryonic — Foetal
B) Embryonic — Foetal —Germinal
C) Germinal — Foetal — Embryonic
D) Embryonic — Germinal — Foetal
64. Which is not included in the developmental tasks of adolescents ?
A) Achieving emotional independence
B) Preparing for an economic career
C) Achieving mature relations with both sexes
D) Starting a family
65. WHO defines adolescents as persons in the age group of
A) 10 to 19
B) 13 to 18
C) 12 to 19
D) 10 to 18
66. Piaget’s theory of cognitive development identifies_________distinct stages of a child’s intellectual development.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
67. What is the main assertion of Havighurst’s developmental theory ?
A) Development is continuous by means of cognitive maturing
B) Development is continuous by means of internal and external physical growth
C) Development is continuous by means of successful resolution of problem performance tasks
D) Development is continuous by means of specific cultural build out to which the individual belongs
68. Which among the following is not a characteristic of old age ?
A) Deterioration of sense faculties
B) Loneliness
C) Withdrawal from social contacts and loss of interest in personal life and family responsibility
D) Optimistic attitudes
69. What development of children will be directly affected by the reduction of emotional and physical support by the family ?
A) Physical Development
B) Cultural Development
C) Personality Development
D) Career Development
70. The sequential order of play development in children is
A) Solitary play, co-operative play, parallel play
B) Solitary play, parallel play, co-operative play
C) Parallel play, solitary play, co-operative play
D) Co-operative play, parallel play, solitary play
71. The nutrient which needed for a healthy immune system and strong connective tissue
A) Fiber
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Calcium
72. An example of a hydrogenated fat
A) Butter
B) Olive oil
C) Margarine
D) Soyabean oil
73. The large central portion of the kernel and contains most of the starch
A) Aleurone
B) Endosperm
C) Bran
D) Germ
74. Which pigment give red colour to fruits and vegetables ?
A) Chlorophyll
B) Flavin and Flavonoids
C) Anthocyanins
D) All of the above
75. A very restrictive diet that replaces normal foods with special formulas
A) Gluten free diet
B) Elemental diet
C) Low fat diet
D) Detox diet
76. Basal metabolism is calculated when
A) Mental activity is in progress
B) Person is physically and mentally at rest
C) Mental ability is in progress
D) None of the above
77. The generic name of polysaccharides is
A) Pentoses
B) Cellulose
C) Glycans
D) Glucans
78. Approximately how much protein does an average adult male require each day ?
A) 36.3 g/d
B) 50 g/d
C) 43.9 g/d
D) 54.0 g/d
79. Which among the following is not a nutritional problem of elders ?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Malnutrition
C) Anaemia
D) Eclampsia
80. Which of the nutrient deficiency leads to the condition spina bifida ?
A) Folate
B) Vitamin B6
C) Riboflavin
D) Vitamin E
81. Which of the following would help a small room feel larger ?
A) Use rough textures
B) Use large furniture, patterns and textures
C) Use cool light colours
D) Place lighting as one chandelier
82. Which of the following is not a tool of time management ?
A) Peak Load
B) Work Curve
C) Fatigue
D) Rest Period
83. Furniture should be designed according to the
A) Latest trends and design to make it look luxurious
B) Posture adopted by performing various activities or at rest
C) Specifications of clients even if it is uncomfortable
D) Budget decided by the client
84. The Japanese art of flower arrangement is known as
A) Origami
B) Kimono
C) Bonsai
D) Ikebana
85. Time is a fleeting, limited and _________ human resource.
A) Easy
B) Intangible
C) Transferable
D) Tangible
86. The concept of classes of change was stated by Dr. Marvin
A) Muillar
B) Markar
C) Mundel
D) Monto
87. The fullform of CFL is
A) Common Fluorescent Lamps
B) Common Filament Lamps
C) Compound Fluorescent Lamps
D) Compact Fluorescent Lamps
88. The line which suggests rest and relaxation, composure and steadiness and repose and peacefulness
A) Diagonal Line
B) Horizontal Line
C) Curved Line
D) Zig Zag Line
89. Operation chart is used to study
A) Body movement
B) Leg movement
C) Finger movement
D) Hand movement
90. Which among the following is psychological fatigue ?
A) Boredom
B) Lack of motivation
C) Lack of sleep
D) Physical exertion
91. Who introduced “noise” as an element in the model of communication process ?
A) Berlo
B) Schramm
C) Leagans
D) Shannon and Weaver
92. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order ?
A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
93. Collection of information in advance before designing communication strategy is known as
A) Feed forward
B) Feed-back
C) Research study
D) Opinion poll
94. What is the standard size of a Flash Card ?
A) 12 x 7cm
B) 15 x 13cm
C) 30 x 20cm
D) 50 x 22cm
95. Talks with a brief presentation followed by a question answer session from the audience
A) Computer assisted instruction
B) Seminar
C) Tech talk
D) Panel discussion
96. Stand alone booth placed at a location that has public access and which provideinformation about a particular topic ?
A) Information Kiosks
B) Internet Kiosks
C) Wayfinding Kiosks
D) Self-service Kiosks
97. The stage in which the learner involves his/her visual and tactile modes to synthesize learning ?
A) Field trip
B) Direct experiences
C) Demonstration
D) Exhibits
98. Cone of experience by Edger was dale based on cognitive psychology model.
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Jerome Bruner
C) Edward Thorndike
D) Piaget
99. Who designed the following model of communication ?
Sender ——
encoding—channel—message—channel—decoding—receiver
A) Schramm
B) Rogers and Shoemaker’s
C) Shannon and Weaver
D) Adler and Towne
100. Video conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication
A) Visual one way
B) Audio visual two way
C) Visual two way
D) Audio visual one way
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